Q1 The Reserve Bank of India issued a notification on January 17, 2026, introducing the new Integrated Ombudsman Scheme. According to this notification, on which date will the new RB-IOS, 2026 officially come into effect, replacing the 2021 framework? Q2 The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) classifies loans into specific categories based on the stage of growth of the beneficiary unit. Which of the following correctly identifies the loan limit for the newly introduced "Tarun Plus" category? Q3 Under the RBI KYC Directions, the periodicity for "Periodic Updation" (Re-KYC) of customer identification data varies by risk category. Which of the following combinations is CORRECT? Q4 As per the latest amendments to the Master Direction on KYC, identifying a customer as a "Money Mule" requires banks to check for specific "Red Flag Indicators." Which of the following is considered a high-risk indicator for a potential mule account? Q5 According to the Reserve Bank of India's harmonization of Turn Around Time (TAT) framework, what is the mandatory timeline for a bank to pro-actively reverse a failed ATM transaction where the account is debited but cash is not dispensed? Q6 As of February 2026, what are the maximum per-transaction limit and the maximum total balance limit allowed in a "UPI Lite" on-device wallet? Q7 Scenario: Mr. Sharma is discharged from a hospital in Mumbai on February 10, 2026. His final bill is ₹4,20,000. He attempts to pay the full amount via a single UPI transaction to the hospital's verified merchant QR code. Based on current regulations, will this transaction succeed? Q8 Under the "Simplified Procedure" for settling claims without a nomination, up to what amount can a Commercial Bank settle a claim without insisting on a Succession Certificate? Q9 As per the revised MSME classification norms (effective from April 1, 2025), which of the following criteria correctly defines a "Micro Enterprise"? Q10 As per the RBI (Co-Lending Arrangements) Directions, 2025 (effective January 1, 2026), what is the minimum percentage of the individual loan amount that the Originating Entity (NBFC) must retain on its books? Q11 As of February 2026, banks are preparing for the transition from the "Incurred Loss" model to the "Expected Credit Loss" (ECL) framework. According to the RBI's roadmap, the ECL framework is proposed to be fully implemented for all commercial banks by: Q12 Regarding the "Tarun Plus" loan category under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) as referenced in Budget 2026, identify the INCORRECT statement. Q13 According to the RBI guidelines on Customer Liability in Unauthorized Electronic Banking Transactions (valid as of February 2026), in which of the following scenarios does a customer have "Zero Liability"? Q14 Under the ambit of the Reserve Bank Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2026, what is the specific asset size threshold for Non-Banking Financial Companies, also known as NBFCs, to be covered? Q15 As per the RBI directive on "Framework for Due Diligence and Risk Management of AePS Touchpoint Operators" (effective January 1, 2026), if an AePS Touchpoint Operator (ATO) remains inactive for a specific continuous period, the acquiring bank must perform a fresh KYC (Re-KYC) before reactivating them. What is this inactivity period? Q16 Regarding the "One Agent – One Bank" model implemented to secure the Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS), which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Q17 As of February 2026, which of the following pairs of Bank Type and its corresponding Total PSL Target is INCORRECT? Q18 If a bank fails to reverse a failed ATM transaction within the stipulated T plus 5 days, what is the mandatory compensation amount payable to the customer per day of delay? Q19 When a Reporting Entity (RE) opens a new account for a customer, it must upload the KYC data to the Central KYC Records Registry (CKYCR). What is the strict timeline for this upload? Q20 With reference to the Amendment Directions dated December 29, 2025, regarding the reliance on Central KYC Records Registry (CKYCR), consider the following statements: Q21 As per the revised Three-Tier structure for Housing Loans (effective April 2025), what is the maximum loan limit for housing loans to individuals in Tier-2 Metropolitan centers (population 10 Lakh to 50 Lakh) to be eligible for PSL classification? Q22 Consider the following statements regarding the Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in Digital Lending: Q23 Under the Special Mention Account (SMA) framework for early identification of stress, an account is classified as "SMA-1" when the principal or interest payment is overdue for which of the following periods? Q24 Regarding the "Out of Order" status for Cash Credit (CC) or Overdraft (OD) facilities, consider the following conditions: Q25 Under the KYC Directions, 2025, a "Beneficial Owner" (BO) is determined based on controlling ownership interest. What is the specific ownership threshold for determining the Beneficial Owner of a Company versus a Trust? Q26 Regarding the enhanced compensation limits in the RB-IOS, 2026, consider the following statements: Q27 The 2025 Directions have institutionalized the Video-Based Customer Identification Process (V-CIP). Which of the following conditions is MANDATORY for a valid V-CIP? Q28 What is the current annual premium payable by a subscriber for the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) for the coverage period starting June 1, 2025? Q29 According to the provisions of the SARFAESI Act, 2002, the measures of the Act do NOT apply if the outstanding amount of debt due to the secured creditor is less than which of the following thresholds? Q30 As of February 2026, what are the minimum default thresholds required to initiate the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) and the Pre-Packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP), respectively? Q31 Under the Priority Sector Lending norms applicable in 2026, loans to individuals for educational purposes, including vocational courses, are eligible for priority sector classification up to what limit? Q32 Regarding the Priority Sector Lending limit for Renewable Energy projects, which of the following statements correctly describes the borrower limits as of February 2026? Q33 Under the Reserve Bank of India's "Positive Pay System" (PPS) directives, banks are mandatorily required to enable this facility for all account holders issuing cheques for amounts of: Q34 Effective January 3, 2026, the Reserve Bank of India implemented "Phase 2" of the Continuous Clearing System for cheques. What is the mandatory "Confirmation Window" for drawee banks under this specific phase? Q35 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), supported by Budget 2026, is rolling out the "Unified Lending Interface" (ULI). What is the primary function of the ULI platform? Q36 Effective from October 1, 2022, a significant eligibility amendment was made to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY). Who among the following is specifically excluded from joining the scheme after this date? Q37 Regarding the consequences faced by a borrower classified as a "Wilful Defaulter," which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Q38 According to the RBI (Project Finance) Directions, 2025, a project loan for an Infrastructure project can retain its "Standard Asset" classification if the DCCO is deferred due to reasons beyond the promoter's control (exogenous reasons), provided the deferment does not exceed: Q39 As per the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, what is the maximum number of nominees a depositor can now appoint for a single deposit account? Q40 As per the current PMEGP guidelines (valid in 2026), what are the maximum admissible project costs for setting up a new enterprise in the Manufacturing and Service sectors respectively? Q41 Regarding the "Upgradation of Loan Accounts" classified as NPAs, consider the specific regulatory requirement clarified by the RBI: "An NPA account can be upgraded to Standard Asset category only if __." Which statement correctly fills the blank? Q42 Scenario: The Reserve Bank of India imposes "All Inclusive Directions" on a stressed Co-operative Bank, restricting depositors from withdrawing funds. Under Section 18A of the DICGC Act, what is the timeline for DICGC to pay the insured amount to the depositors? Q43 Which of the following terms best describes the "UPI Circle" feature introduced by the NPCI, and what is the primary operational relationship it establishes between users? Q44 Consider the following assertion and reason regarding the "Deemed Approval" mechanism in CTS 2026. Q45 In the context of "Settlement of Claims for Missing Persons," a bank can settle a claim before the statutory 7-year waiting period if the claimant produces which specific set of documents? Q46 Scenario: An NBFC has a total digital loan portfolio of ₹100 Crore sourced through a specific Fintech partner. They have a Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) arrangement. If the actual defaults in this portfolio amount to ₹8 Crore, what is the maximum amount the Fintech partner can legally reimburse the NBFC under the current RBI guidelines? Q47 Before an account becomes "Unclaimed" (at 10 years), it is first classified as "Inoperative" or "Dormant." According to RBI guidelines, what is the specific period of non-operation (no customer-induced transaction) after which a Savings or Current account is classified as Inoperative? Q48 Consider the following statements regarding the "Margin Money" requirements under the Stand-Up India Scheme: Q49 Consider the following statements regarding the PMEGP Subsidy Lock-in: Q50 Consider the following statements regarding the "Turnover Method" (Nayak Committee) and "Maximum Permissible Bank Finance" (Tandon Committee): Q51 Regarding the consequences faced by a borrower classified as a "Wilful Defaulter," which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Q52 Scenario: Ms. Rina, a shopkeeper aged 58, wishes to enroll in a social security scheme. She has a functional savings bank account but no prior insurance. She approaches you to join PMJJBY and PMSBY. Based on the eligibility rules (as of 2026), what is the correct course of action? Q53 When an account is classified as a "Sub-standard Asset," what is the general provisioning requirement on the secured portion of the outstanding balance? Q54 Regarding "Pipeline Flows" (credits or cheques received in the name of a deceased depositor after their death), which of the following approaches are authorized by the RBI? Q55 According to the RBI (Project Finance) Directions, 2025, a project loan for an Infrastructure project can retain its "Standard Asset" classification if the DCCO is deferred due to reasons beyond the promoter's control (exogenous reasons), provided the deferment does not exceed: Q56 Under the RBI's Limited Liability framework for unauthorized electronic transactions reported between 4 to 7 working days, the maximum liability of the customer is capped based on the account type. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched? Q57 As per the current guidelines of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), what is the maximum limit for the Overdraft (OD) facility available to eligible account holders, and what is the upper age limit to avail this facility? Q58 Regarding the UDGAM (Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access inforMation) Portal, which of the following actions can a user NOT perform on the portal? Q59 Which of the following statements regarding "Sovereign Green Bonds" (SGrBs) and the "Greenium" concept are Correct? Q60 Regarding the "Key Fact Statement" (KFS) under the RBI Digital Lending Guidelines, which of the following pairs of components and their treatment is INCORRECTLY matched? Q61 With reference to the IBC (Amendment) Bill, 2025 regarding the admission of insolvency applications, consider the following statements: Q62 Regarding the provisioning norms for "Doubtful Assets," consider the following matching of Doubtful Categories (based on age) with their required provision percentages on the secured portion: Q63 The "Stand-Up India" scheme mandates that loans must be provided for setting up a "Greenfield Enterprise." In the context of this scheme, what does the term "Greenfield Enterprise" strictly imply? Q64 Scenario: Ms. Geeta, an aspiring entrepreneur from a Rural area belonging to the SC category, applies for a PMEGP loan to start a pottery unit. The total project cost is ₹10 Lakh. What is the Rate of Subsidy (Margin Money) she is eligible to receive from the government? Q65 Scenario: Mr. Raj, an APY subscriber, fails to maintain the required balance in his savings account for the monthly contribution auto-debit. The contribution for April 2026 remains unpaid. What is the consequence of this default? Q66 What is the insurance premium rate paid to DICGC as of the financial year 2025-26, and who bears the burden of this cost? Q67 Consider the following account holding patterns to determine insurance coverage limits: Q68 [Updated Feb 2026] Consider the following statements regarding the "Continuous Clearing" of cheques under CTS: Q69 Which of the following best describes the primary operational difference between the legacy Electronic Clearing Service (ECS) and the modern National Automated Clearing House (NACH)? Q70 Which of the following correctly distinguishes between "Vishing" and "Smishing" as modes of social engineering attacks in banking? Q71 Consider the following statements regarding the Co-Lending Model (CLM) between Banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs): Q72 As per the revised guidelines (effective 2025), loans to Start-ups (as defined by Ministry of Commerce and Industry) are eligible for Priority Sector Lending classification up to what limit? Q73 According to the Income Recognition norms for Non-Performing Assets (NPAs), which of the following statements is NOT correct? Q74 According to the RBI norms for Standard Asset Provisioning, what is the required provision percentage for the "General" category of advances (i.e., loans not falling under Agriculture, SME, or Commercial Real Estate)? Q75 With reference to the procedure under Section 13 of the SARFAESI Act, consider the following statements: Q76 Consider the following statements: Q77 According to Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed for the offence of dishonour of a cheque? Q78 As per Section 6 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which of the following is the defining characteristic that distinguishes a "Cheque" from a standard Bill of Exchange? Q79 Section 10 of the NI Act defines "Payment in Due Course." Which of the following conditions is NOT required to claim protection under this section? Q80 A "Material Alteration" renders a negotiable instrument void under Section 87. Which of the following changes is NOT considered a Material Alteration? Q81 Section 131 of the Negotiable Instruments Act provides statutory protection to a "Collecting Banker." Which of the following is the primary condition that must be satisfied for a banker to claim this protection? Q82 Under Section 85(1), a Paying Banker is discharged from liability if he pays an "Order Cheque" in due course, even if: Q83 Under the updated RBI Guidelines for "Settlement of Death Claims," once the bank receives all the necessary documents from the claimant (nominee or legal heir), within what time period is the bank mandatorily required to settle the claim? Q84 According to the RBI Master Direction on Customer Service, what is the minimum threshold limit up to which banks are advised to settle claims in respect of deceased depositors without insisting on legal representation (like a Succession Certificate) in the absence of a nominee? Q85 In the context of "Settlement of Claims for Missing Persons," a bank can settle a claim before the statutory 7-year waiting period if the claimant produces which specific set of documents? Q86 Before an account becomes "Unclaimed" (at 10 years), it is first classified as "Inoperative" or "Dormant." According to RBI guidelines, what is the specific period of non-operation (no customer-induced transaction) after which a Savings or Current account is classified as Inoperative? Q87 According to Section 26 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, a deposit account is legally classified as "Unclaimed" and the funds must be transferred to the Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund if the account has not been operated for a period of how many years? Q88 Regarding the UDGAM (Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access inforMation) Portal, which of the following actions can a user NOT perform on the portal? Q89 Regarding the specific nomination rules for Safe Deposit Lockers and Articles in Safe Custody, which of the following is ALLOWED under the 2025 framework? Q90 As per the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, what is the maximum number of nominees a depositor can now appoint for a single deposit account? Q91 In the context of the "Cyber Swachhta Kendra" (Botnet Cleaning and Malware Analysis Centre), which of the following descriptions is INCORRECT? Q92 In the context of Video-based Customer Identification Process (V-CIP) for KYC, which of the following technological checks is MANDATORY to ensure the customer is physically present and not using a recording? Q93 Consider the following statements regarding the "Shared Responsibility Model" in Cloud Computing for banks. Q94 Which of the following terms best describes the "UPI Circle" feature introduced by the NPCI, and what is the primary operational relationship it establishes between users? Q95 Consider the following statements regarding the "Wholesale CBDC" (e₹-W) pilots conducted by the RBI as of 2026: Q96 Regarding the "Offline Functionality" of the Retail CBDC (e₹-R) introduced in the 2024-2025 pilots, which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Q97 The Account Aggregator (AA) framework is designed around the principle of being "Data Blind." What does this specifically mean for the AA entity (NBFC-AA)? Q98 In the context of the "Programmability" pilot for Retail CBDC (e₹-R) launched in 2024-2025, which of the following use cases was successfully tested in states like Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh? Q99 The Account Aggregator (AA) ecosystem connects Financial Information Providers (FIPs) with Financial Information Users (FIUs). As of February 2026, which of the following entities is NOT typically considered a valid FIP in the ecosystem? Q100 Consider the following statements distinguishing CBDC from UPI: Q101 Scenario: A small business owner, Mr. X, applies for a business loan. The lender asks him to share his GST returns and Bank Statements via an Account Aggregator (AA). Mr. X consents. A month later, he decides he no longer wants the lender to access his daily transaction data. Under the AA framework, what is Mr. X's right? Q102 In August 2024, the RBI Governor announced the launch of "ULI" to speed up the credit appraisal process. What does the acronym ULI stand for, and which pilot project did it evolve from? Q103 According to the RBI’s "Fair Lending Practice" circular regarding Penal Charges (effective 2024 and valid in 2026), how must a Regulated Entity (RE) treat late payment penalties? Q104 Under the RBI’s Digital Lending Guidelines regarding data collection by Digital Lending Apps (DLAs), which of the following mobile permissions is a DLA explicitly permitted to request from a borrower? Q105 Consider the following statements regarding the Co-Lending Model (CLM) between Banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs): Q106 Regarding the recognition of Self-Regulatory Organizations for the FinTech Sector (SRO-FT) by the RBI, which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Q107 Consider the following statements regarding RuPay Credit Cards on UPI: Q108 Identify the correct statement regarding the reporting of "Digital Lending" loans to Credit Information Companies (CICs). Q109 Which of the following best defines the core objective of "Credit Appraisal" in a banking context, and which principle of lending is generally considered the most critical? Q110 In the context of banking credit facilities, which of the following clearly distinguishes a "Fund-Based" limit from a "Non-Fund Based" limit? Q111 Regarding the "Operating Cycle" in working capital assessment, which of the following statements is NOT correct? Q112 Consider the following statements regarding the "Turnover Method" (Nayak Committee) and "Maximum Permissible Bank Finance" (Tandon Committee): Q113 Identify the pair of "Charge Type" and "Asset Nature" that is INCORRECTLY matched: Q114 Consider the following statements regarding Fixed vs. Floating Charges: Q115 Scenario: A textile manufacturer needs to purchase a new automated loom (machinery) expected to last 10 years. They also need funds to buy cotton bales (raw material) for the upcoming season. Action: The bank manager suggests a Term Loan for the loom and a Cash Credit limit for the cotton. Why is this structural distinction necessary? Q116 Scenario: A bank grants a loan against the security of a warehouse full of paddy. The bank puts its own lock and key on the warehouse and appoints a security guard. The key remains with the Bank Manager. Which legal mode of charge has been created? Q117 In the context of Term Loan appraisal, what does the Debt Service Coverage Ratio (DSCR) primarily indicate, and what is generally considered the minimum acceptable benchmark for most banks? Q118 Which type of Mortgage is created by the simple delivery of documents of title to immovable property with the intent to create security, and is valid only in notified towns? Q119 When calculating the Current Ratio for working capital assessment, which of the following is strictly NOT classified as a Current Liability? Q120 Regarding the calculation of Maximum Permissible Bank Finance (MPBF) under the Tandon Committee recommendations: Method I: The bank lends 75% of the "Working Capital Gap" (Current Assets minus Current Liabilities). Method II: The bank lends 75% of "Total Current Assets" minus Current Liabilities. Method II is more liberal (gives a higher loan amount) than Method Q121 Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding "Assignment" as a mode of creating a charge: Q122 Consider the following statements regarding liquidity ratios: Q123 Scenario: A borrower has the following stock position: Total Stock Value: ₹100 Lakhs Sundry Creditors (unpaid stock): ₹20 Lakhs Bank Margin stipulated: 25% Calculate the Drawing Power (DP) available to the borrower. Q124 Scenario: A company has a Term Loan from Bank A secured by a First Charge on Plant and Machinery. Later, the company takes a Working Capital loan from Bank Q125 Which of the following statements most accurately defines the primary objective and scope of the SARFAESI Act, 2002? Q126 According to the provisions of the SARFAESI Act, 2002, the measures of the Act do NOT apply if the outstanding amount of debt due to the secured creditor is less than which of the following thresholds? Q127 Section 31 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 explicitly excludes certain types of properties and transactions from the purview of the Act. Which of the following is NOT covered under the SARFAESI Act? Q128 Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding the Central Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest of India, known as CERSAI. Q129 A borrower is aggrieved by the action of a bank taking possession of his commercial shop under Section 13(4) of the SARFAESI Act. He wishes to file an application against this action. Which forum must he approach and within what timeline? Q130 Scenario: 'Apex Textiles Ltd' has defaulted on a loan of Rupees 50 Lakhs. The bank issued a Section 13(2) notice on January 1st. Apex Textiles did not reply. On March 5th, the bank took symbolic possession of the factory. Apex Textiles claims the action is illegal because the bank did not approach the DRT before taking possession. Based on the SARFAESI Act, is the borrower's claim valid? Q131 Which of the following statements best describes the fundamental shift in the Indian insolvency regime introduced by the IBC, 2016, compared to the earlier SICA regime? Q132 Section 29A of the IBC renders certain persons ineligible to be Resolution Applicants. Which of the following is NOT a ground for disqualification under Section 29A? Q133 Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding the Liquidation Process as per the 2025 amended framework. Q134 'TechNova Solutions', an MSME, is facing financial stress. The promoters want to resolve the debt but wish to retain management control to preserve business continuity. Which mechanism under IBC is most suitable for them? Q135 Scenario: 'Skyline Buildtech' and 'Skyline Infra', two separate companies with the same promoters, are developing a township. Homebuyers have allotted units in both. In February 2026, homebuyers filed a single joint Section 7 petition against both companies. The companies challenged this, arguing they are separate legal entities. Based on the Supreme Court judgment in Satinder Singh Bhasin (Feb 2026), is the joint petition maintainable? Q136 Identify the pair that correctly matches the Scheme with its eligible entry age and premium payment mode: Q137 Consider the following statements: Q138 Consider the following statements regarding the claim limits and benefits under various Financial Inclusion schemes as of 2026: Q139 Scenario: Mr. Raj, an APY subscriber, fails to maintain the required balance in his savings account for the monthly contribution auto-debit. The contribution for April 2026 remains unpaid. What is the consequence of this default? Q140 Who is the regulatory authority responsible for the administration and supervision of the Atal Pension Yojana (APY)? Q141 The "Stand-Up India" scheme mandates that loans must be provided for setting up a "Greenfield Enterprise." In the context of this scheme, what does the term "Greenfield Enterprise" strictly imply? Q142 Which of the following activities is NOT eligible for financing under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY)? Q143 Consider the following statements regarding the "Margin Money" requirements under the Stand-Up India Scheme: Q144 To be eligible for the "Tarun Plus" loan category (loans between ₹10 Lakh and ₹20 Lakh) under MUDRA, a borrower must satisfy a specific condition. Which of the following is that condition? Q145 Match the Loan Schemes in List I with their correct financial limits in List II. List I (Scheme) Q146 Consider the following statements: Q147 Scenario: Mr. Sharma (General Category, Male) and Ms. Anjali (General Category, Female) both approach a bank branch to apply for a Stand-Up India loan of ₹25 Lakh to start a new textile business. Neither has any prior business experience. Who is eligible for the loan under this scheme? Q148 Which of the following agencies acts as the single national-level "Nodal Agency" for the implementation of the Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)? Q149 As per the current PMEGP guidelines (valid in 2026), what are the maximum admissible project costs for setting up a new enterprise in the Manufacturing and Service sectors respectively? Q150 Scenario: Ms. Geeta, an aspiring entrepreneur from a Rural area belonging to the SC category, applies for a PMEGP loan to start a pottery unit. The total project cost is ₹10 Lakh. What is the Rate of Subsidy (Margin Money) she is eligible to receive from the government? Q151 Consider the following statements regarding the "Own Contribution" (Beneficiary's Share) required under PMEGP: Q152 Under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM), what is the limit for collateral-free loans provided to Self Help Groups (SHGs) as per the latest RBI Master Circular (2025-26)? Q153 The DAY-NRLM provides an Interest Subvention Scheme for Women SHGs. Which of the following statements correctly describes the effective interest rate for prompt payees in 2026? Q154 Consider the following statements regarding the PMEGP Subsidy Lock-in: Q155 Scenario: Mr. Raj wants to set up a manufacturing unit under PMEGP with a total project cost of ₹15 Lakh. He has completed his education only up to the 5th standard. Is he eligible for the loan under the PMEGP guidelines? Q156 Consider the following statements regarding the Atal Pension Yojana (APY): Q157 According to the Union Budget 2026-27, what is the revised Fiscal Deficit target set for the financial year 2026-27, expressed as a percentage of GDP? Q158 The Union Budget 2026-27 announced the formation of a "High-Level Committee on Banking" (HLC-B). What is the specific mandate of this committee as stated in the budget speech? Q159 To boost the "Municipal Bond" market, the Budget 2026-27 introduced a specific monetary incentive. Which of the following accurately describes this incentive? Q160 The Budget 2026-27 proposed a significant change to the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules regarding "Persons Resident Outside India" (PROI). What is the new investment limit for an individual PROI in the equity capital of a listed Indian company? Q161 To support the growth of "High-Potential" MSMEs, the Budget 2026-27 announced the creation of a dedicated "SME Growth Fund." What is the total corpus of this fund? Q162 The Budget 2026-27 highlighted the success of the "Credit Assessment Model" (CAM) for Public Sector Banks (PSBs). This new model primarily relies on which type of data for sanctioning MSME loans? Q163 To deepen the corporate bond market, the Budget 2026-27 proposed the introduction of a "Market Making Framework." This framework specifically allows access to funds and derivatives on which underlying asset? Q164 Under the "Direct Listing Scheme" operationalized by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), which category of Indian companies is currently eligible to list their equity shares exclusively on International Exchanges in GIFT City? Q165 The Budget 2026-27 introduced the concept of "Corporate Mitras." Who are these "Corporate Mitras" and what is their primary function? Q166 The Finance Minister proposed specific measures to leverage the TReDS platform in Budget 2026. Which of the following is NOT one of those announced measures? Q167 A major structural reform in the Union Budget 2026-27 was the increase in the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit for the Insurance Sector. What is the new FDI cap? Q168 To support the agricultural sector, the Union Budget 2026-27 announced an enhancement in the limit for "collateral-free" loans under the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme (Modified Interest Subvention Scheme). What is the new limit? Q169 Scenario: "FinBank Ltd" holds a large portfolio of invoices (receivables) from Power Sector CPSEs on its TReDS platform. To free up capital, it wants to sell these receivables to a Mutual Fund. Under the Budget 2026 reforms, what specific mechanism enables this transaction? Q170 Which of the following statements regarding the "Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban 2.0" (PMAY-U 2.0) Interest Subsidy Scheme (ISS) are Correct? Q171 Under the "PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana" (Rooftop Solar Scheme), the government provides subsidies based on system capacity. Which of the following subsidy slabs is INCORRECT? Q172 Regarding the "NPS Vatsalya" scheme introduced to promote financial inclusion for minors, identify the INCORRECT statement. Q173 To secure the supply chain for EV batteries, the Budget 2026-27 announced specific incentives under the "Critical Mineral Mission." Which of the following is a key component of this mission? Q174 Scenario: Mr. Sharma, an urban resident with an annual household income of ₹5 Lakh, wishes to buy his first pucca house. He applies for a loan under PMAY-Urban 2.0. Which category does he fall under, and what is his primary eligibility criterion regarding house ownership? Q175 Consider the following Assertion and Reason regarding Electronic Cheques. Q176 Which of the following is an example of a "General Crossing"? Q177 Mr. A endorses a cheque to Mr. B by adding the words "Sans Recourse" to his signature. The cheque is subsequently dishonoured. What is the legal liability of Mr. A in this scenario? Q178 Regarding the territorial jurisdiction for filing a complaint under Section 138 (Dishonour of Cheque), consider the following statements based on Section 142 and recent judgments: Q179 Consider the following regarding the liability of a "Drawee in Case of Need". Q180 Which of the following specific endorsements converts a "Bearer" instrument into an "Order" instrument? Q181 Scenario: A company issues a cheque signed by its Director, Mr. Sharma. The cheque is dishonoured due to "Insufficient Funds." The complainant files a case under Section 138 against Mr. Sharma (Director) without making the Company an accused in the complaint. Based on the binding Supreme Court precedent (Aneeta Hada case), is the complaint maintainable against Mr. Sharma? Q182 What is the legal effect of adding the words "Not Negotiable" to a crossing on a cheque under Section 130 of the NI Act? Q183 Under Section 85(1), a Paying Banker is discharged from liability if he pays an "Order Cheque" in due course, even if: Q184 Scenario: A cheque is drawn by Mr. X in favor of Mr. Y. A thief steals the cheque, forges Mr. Y's endorsement, and transfers it to Mr. Z, who takes it for value and in good faith. Mr. Z presents it to the bank. Who is the "Holder in Due Course" in this scenario? Q185 Consider the following statements regarding Section 89 of the NI Act (Payment of instrument on which alteration is not apparent): Q186 Scenario: A branch manager opens a current account for a new customer, Mr. Fraud, accepting only a generic electricity bill as proof of address, without obtaining an officially valid document (OVD) or verifying the identity as per RBI KYC norms. Two days later, Mr. Fraud deposits a stolen crossed cheque of 50 Lakh Rupees into this account. The bank collects the proceeds. It is later found that Mr. Fraud was an imposter. Is the collecting banker protected under Section 131? Q187 Which of the following statements regarding the "Premature Termination of Term Deposits" in the event of the depositor's death is INCORRECT? Q188 Consider the following: Q189 Scenario: A customer dies leaving a Savings Account balance of Rupees 4 Lakh. There is no nomination. The deceased has three children. Child A approaches the bank with a "Simple Indemnity Bond" and a "Letter of Disclaimer" from Child B and Child Q190 According to Section 26 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, a deposit account is legally classified as "Unclaimed" and the funds must be transferred to the Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund if the account has not been operated for a period of how many years? Q191 For an account to remain "Active," there must be a "Customer Induced Transaction." Which of the following is considered a valid Customer Induced Transaction under RBI guidelines? Q192 According to the Revised Instructions on Inoperative Accounts (effective from 2024), which channels are banks permitted to use for the Re-activation of inoperative accounts to ensure customer convenience? Q193 Which of the following statements regarding the interest payable on Unclaimed Deposits transferred to the DEA Fund is INCORRECT? Q194 Consider the following: Q195 Scenario: A student opened a "Zero Balance" Savings Account for receiving a Government Scholarship in 2023. The scholarship stopped in 2024. The student has not done any transaction since then. It is now 2026 (more than 2 years). The Bank Manager classifies this account as "Inoperative" and stops debiting transactions. Is the Manager's action consistent with RBI guidelines? Q196 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the fees or costs involved in filing a complaint under the Reserve Bank Integrated Ombudsman Scheme?