Q41 Consider the following statements regarding the MSME, Start-ups, and Export Credit Thresholds under priority sector guidelines: Q42 Consider the following statements regarding the Housing and Education Priority Sector Lending Ceilings: Q43 Since September 15, 2018, what specific detail must a bank incorporate on the face of a Demand Draft, Pay Order, or Banker's Cheque? Q44 Banks must put in place an adequate screening mechanism as an integral part of their personnel recruitment process. What is this specific policy called? Q45 For a Sole Proprietary firm, if a bank decides to accept only one document as proof of business (instead of the standard two) due to the firm's inability to furnish two, what additional measure is mandatory? Q46 Regarding "Assisted V-CIP," which of the following statements correctly describes the role of Business Correspondents (BCs)? Q47 Which of the following authorities is mandatory to conduct the Vulnerability Assessment, Penetration Testing, and Security Audit of the V-CIP infrastructure? Q48 For opening an account of a Company, which of the following documents is mandatory to obtain as a certified copy? Q49 During periodic updation of KYC for an individual customer, if there is a change only in the address details, the bank must verify the declared address through "positive confirmation" within what timeframe? Q50 When an account holder who was a minor at the time of account opening becomes a major, the bank is required to obtain fresh photographs and ensure that Customer Due Diligence (CDD) documents are available as per current standards. Q51 Regarding the "Due Notices for Periodic Updation of KYC," what is the minimum number of advance intimations and subsequent reminders a bank must send to a customer before the due date and after the due date, respectively? Q52 In the context of customers unable to provide PAN or Form No. 60, "temporary ceasing of operations" in relation to an account is defined as: Q53 For accounts opened in non-face-to-face mode (subject to Enhanced Due Diligence), the first transaction must necessarily be a credit from an existing KYC-complied bank account of the customer. Q54 Regarding the "Simplified norms for Self Help Groups (SHGs)," which of the following statements are correct? Q55 When a bank opens a Non-Resident Ordinary (NRO) account for a foreign student pending address verification, what is the cap on the aggregate withdrawal from such an account during the 30-day period? Q56 Regarding the maintenance and preservation of records, which of the following timeframes are correct? Q57 Regarding Suspicious Transaction Reports (STRs), banks are explicitly prohibited from taking which of the following actions? Q58 According to the guidelines on Secrecy Obligations, in which of the following circumstances is a bank permitted to disclose customer information? Q59 The 'Net Demand and Time Liabilities' (NDTL) is the base for calculating CRR and SLR. What does the term 'Net' specifically refer to in this context? Q60 For the purpose of CRR maintenance, the relevant NDTL figure is taken from which specific reporting day? Q61 Which of the following items is NOT included in the calculation of NDTL for the purpose of CRR/SLR maintenance? Q62 Consider the following liabilities of a bank. Which of these are classified as "Time Liabilities"? Q63 Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding the daily maintenance of CRR: Q64 Evaluate the following statements regarding 'Incremental CRR' (I-CRR): Q65 Consider the following: Q66 Scenario: A Scheduled Commercial Bank has a required CRR of ₹100 Crore for the current fortnight. On Tuesday (a working day within the fortnight), the bank's actual balance with the RBI stands at ₹88 Crore. What is the regulatory implication? Q67 Under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, banks must maintain SLR in specific forms. Which of the following is NOT a valid form for maintaining SLR? Q68 When valuing Gold for the purpose of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) compliance, which pricing methodology must banks strictly follow? Q69 Regarding "State Development Loans" (SDLs) in the context of banking liquidity: Q70 Generally, pledging SLR securities to borrow money reduces a bank's SLR compliance. However, there is a specific facility under which banks are permitted to "dip" into their SLR portfolio up to a certain limit to borrow funds without attracting a default penalty. What is this facility called? Q71 Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding the classification of securities for SLR: Q72 Consider the following: Q73 Evaluate the following statements regarding the "Cash" component of SLR: Q74 Scenario: 'Bank Beta' has an SLR requirement of ₹200 Crore. It holds ₹198 Crore in unencumbered G-Secs, and ₹5 Crore in G-Secs that it has pledged to the RBI to borrow funds under the standard Repo window (LAF). What is the bank's SLR status? Q75 If a bank fails to maintain the required Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) on any day, it is liable to pay penal interest to the RBI. What is the penal rate for the first day/instance of such default? Q76 Which specific return/form must Scheduled Commercial Banks submit to the RBI, to report their CRR maintenance status on a fortnightly basis? Q77 Regarding the reporting of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), consider the following: Q78 If a bank persists in defaulting on its CRR maintenance after the first instance, the RBI imposes stricter penalties. Which of the following consequences is NOT prescribed for the immediate subsequent days of continued default? Q79 Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding the liability of bank officers in case of CRR/SLR default: Q80 Consider the following: Q81 Evaluate the following statements regarding 'Holidays' and Reporting: Q82 Scenario: The current Bank Rate is 6.50%. 'Bank Gamma' fails to maintain its required CRR for three consecutive days. Q83 In the context of Monetary Policy, if the RBI decides to increase the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), what is the immediate expected impact on the banking system? Q84 The "Money Multiplier" in an economy is inversely related to the Reserve Ratios. Mathematically, if banks were required to keep 100% of deposits as reserves (CRR = 100%), what would be the value of the money multiplier? Q85 Consider the impact of a high Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) on the economy: Q86 Consider the following: Q87 Evaluate the relationship between Reserve Ratios and Bank Margins: Q88 During a period of high inflation, the RBI adopts a "Tightening" or "Hawkish" stance. Which of the following actions would be inconsistent (NOT align) with this stance? Q89 Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding the "Operating Procedure" of Monetary Policy: Q90 An 'Unbanked Rural Centre' (URC) is defined as a rural centre that lacks a CBS-enabled 'Banking Outlet', and falls under which specific population tier classifications? Q91 For the purpose of disclosure under Accounting Standard 17 (AS-17), the 'Digital Banking Segment' is classified as a sub-segment of which existing segment? Q92 Which of the following statements, regarding the functions and restrictions of an "Administrative Office" or "Controlling Office" of a bank, are correct? Q93 Consider the following statements, regarding the mandated frequency of Board reviews for various banking channels: Q94 According to the general permission for opening banking outlets, what is the minimum percentage of total 'Banking Outlets' opened during a financial year that a domestic scheduled commercial bank must open in Unbanked Rural Centres (URCs)? Q95 According to the population-group wise classification based on the 2011 Census, a 'Rural Centre' is defined as a centre with a population of: Q96 Which of the following statements, regarding compliance with the 25 percent Unbanked Rural Centre (URC) norm, are correct? Q97 Consider the following statements, regarding the role of the State Level Banker Committee (SLBC): Q98 Which of the following statements regarding the membership and registration of Credit Information Companies (CICs) are correct? Q99 Which of the following statements regarding credit information reporting timelines and data rectification are correct? Q100 Which of the following statements regarding Customer Service and Best Practices for Credit Institutions are correct? Q101 Which of the following statements regarding the Framework for Compensation to Customers for delayed updation of credit information are correct? Q102 What requirement is specified for all Credit Institutions (CIs) regarding their membership with Credit Information Companies (CICs)? Q103 In the event of a cancellation of a Credit Institution's (CI) Certificate of Registration (CoR) or licence, what action are Credit Information Companies (CICs) required to take? Q104 Credit Institutions (CIs) shall rectify the rejected data and upload the same with the Credit Information Companies (CICs) within ...... of receipt of such rejection report. Q105 How frequently are Credit Information Companies (CICs) required to undertake periodic exercises or checks to identify identifier inconsistencies in their databases? Q106 For which three distinct segments are Credit Information Companies (CICs) required to prepare and provide a Data Quality Index (DQI)? Q107 Which of the following statements regarding the Data Quality Index (DQI) are correct? Q108 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the legal framework and applicability of the Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks - Internal Ombudsman) Directions, 2026? Q109 Consider the following statements regarding the eligibility and independence criteria for the appointment of an Internal Ombudsman (IO) under the 2026 Directions, and select the correct option. Q110 Which of the following statements correctly differentiates the roles and requirements of the Internal Ombudsman (IO) versus the Deputy Internal Ombudsman (Dy. IO) under the RBI Directions, 2026? Q111 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the tenure, removal, and service conditions of the Internal Ombudsman (IO) under the 2026 Directions? Q112 Consider the following statements regarding the reporting lines and administrative governance of the Internal Ombudsman (IO) office, and select the correct option. Q113 Which of the following statements accurately describes the operational boundaries and provisions for temporary arrangements regarding the Internal Ombudsman (IO)? Q114 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the governance, reporting, and administrative powers of the Internal Ombudsman (IO) as per the Reserve Bank of India (Internal Ombudsman for Regulated Entities) Directions, 2026? Q115 Consider the following statements regarding the operational scope, compensation powers, and complaint classification protocols of the Internal Ombudsman (IO). Which of the following statements is incorrect? Q116 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the resolution timelines and communication protocols under the Internal Ombudsman (IO Scheme in banks? Q117 Consider the following statements regarding the operational constraints and procedural mandates for the Internal Ombudsman (IO) in banks. Which of the following is/are correct? Q118 Which of the following best describes the reporting and performance monitoring requirements for the Internal Ombudsman (IO) mechanism in banks? Q119 To facilitate understanding and interpretation, credit scores shall be calibrated from ...... by all Credit Information Companies (CICs). Q120 How frequently are individuals entitled to receive one Free Full Credit Report (FFCR), including a credit score, from Credit Information Companies (CICs)? Q121 Consider the following statements: Q122 Which of the following statements regarding the retention of credit information by third-party entities (obtained via consent) are correct? Q123 One of the sub-fields in the enquiry module of Credit Information Companies (CICs) must be invariably designated as 'Business Loan Director Search ......'. Q124 When a Credit Information Company (CIC) shares credit information of an individual with a third-party entity based on consent, where must that information be processed and stored? Q125 Who is responsible for appointing the CISA certified auditor to conduct the Information System (IS) audit of entities that receive credit information based on individual consent? Q126 When a Credit Institution (CI) corrects erroneous data, who is responsible for updating that data in the Credit Information Company's (CIC) database? Q127 If a correction is carried out in a Credit Information Report (CIR), to whom must the Credit Information Company (CIC) provide a free copy of the corrected report? Q128 Credit Institutions (CIs) must include in their ...... suitable provisions for obtaining Credit Information Reports (CIRs) from one or more CICs for credit decisions. Q129 Credit Institutions (CIs) that are secured creditors under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, must display information about borrowers whose secured assets have been possessed. How often must this list be updated on their website? Q130 Which of the following statements regarding the Technical Working Group (TWG) are correct? Q131 Which of the following statements regarding the Standing Sub-Group of the Technical Working Group (TWG) are correct? Q132 When are Credit Information Companies (CICs) required to send alerts via SMS or email to customers? Q133 When are Credit Institutions (CIs) required to send alerts via SMS or email to their customers? Q134 Credit Institutions (CIs) must inform Credit Information Companies (CICs) of any changes in their nodal point/official within ...... of such a change. Q135 What action must a Credit Institution (CI) take if it rejects a customer's request for data correction? Q136 Which of the following statements regarding Root Cause Analysis (RCA) and algorithm reviews are correct? Q137 What is the compensation amount a complainant is entitled to if their complaint regarding credit information is not resolved within thirty calendar days? Q138 With reference to agricultural advances, which of the following statements are correct? Q139 Consider the following statements regarding asset classification categories: Q140 Which of the following statements regarding fundamental banking definitions are correct? Q141 Which of the following conditions characterize a Cash Credit/Overdraft (CC/OD) account as "out of order"? Q142 The "Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR)" is the ratio of provisioning to: Q143 Which of the following statements regarding Asset Classification norms and definitions are correct? Q144 Consider the following norms regarding Credit Monitoring and Review of Limits: Q145 For Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) with a balance of ₹5 crore and above, which of the following due diligence measures are mandatory? Q146 If a loan account has a due date of March 31 and remains unpaid, it becomes overdue on March 31. If it remains continuously overdue, on which date must it be classified as NPA (upon completion of 90 days)? Q147 Which of the following statements regarding exceptions and exemptions in Asset Classification are correct? Q148 Which of the following statements regarding Provisioning Rates for Standard and Doubtful assets are correct? Q149 Which of the following rules governing the mechanics of Asset Classification and Provisioning are correct? Q150 Which of the following statements regarding special provisioning norms are correct? Q151 Which of the following rules govern Income Recognition and Appropriation of Recoveries? Q152 The current prudential norms on Income Recognition, Asset Classification, and Provisioning (IRAC) in the Indian banking system are primarily based on the recommendations of which committee? Q153 An "advance against own deposit" includes advances granted against Rupee/FCNR(B) term deposits standing in the name of which of the following? Q154 Which of the following is NOT listed as a component of the "External benchmark rate"? Q155 The "Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR)" is defined as the internal benchmark rate used to determine interest rates on advances/loans sanctioned up to which date? Q156 Which of the following statements regarding "Fixed Rate Loans" are correct? Q157 While the general rule mandates that interest shall be charged on all advances at monthly rests, which specific category of advances is exempted and governed by separate circulars? Q158 Under the Reserve Bank of India (Treatment of Wilful Defaulters and Large Defaulters) Directions, a "large defaulter" must have an outstanding amount of at least ₹1 crore.