Treasury Risk Management MCQ: CAIIB BFM Unit 23 Module C. These 58 multiple-choice questions will help you learn about the different types of risks banks face, like market risk and credit risk.

Treasury Risk Management MCQ: CAIIB BFM Unit 23 Module C – Attempt Now!
Question 1: What is a key function of treasury that inherently involves market risk?
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Correct Answer: B. Profiting from market opportunities. Treasury functions often involve taking positions in financial markets to generate profits, which exposes them to market fluctuations.
Question 2: Besides market risk, what other type of risk does treasury primarily manage that arises from other banking activities?
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Correct Answer: C. Balance sheet risk. Treasury plays a crucial role in managing the risks associated with a bank’s assets and liabilities.
Question 3: What is a potential negative consequence of using high leverage in treasury operations?
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Correct Answer: B. Magnified potential losses. High leverage amplifies both potential gains and potential losses in treasury activities.
Question 4: Why can single errors in treasury transactions lead to substantial financial losses?
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Correct Answer: B. Transaction sizes in treasury are typically very large. The large volumes handled by treasury mean even small errors can result in significant monetary losses.
Question 5: What is a characteristic of market losses in treasury that emphasizes the need for strong risk management?
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Correct Answer: C. They can materialize quickly, and trades are often irreversible. The rapid nature of market movements and the difficulty in reversing trades necessitate robust risk controls in treasury.
Question 6: Which of the following best describes market risk in the context of treasury?
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Correct Answer: C. The potential loss due to unfavorable changes in market prices. Market risk directly relates to fluctuations in exchange rates, interest rates, and security prices.
Question 7: What does the term “volatility” refer to in the context of financial markets?
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Correct Answer: C. The degree of variation or fluctuation in market prices. Volatility indicates how much and how quickly market prices change.
Question 8: What is the primary concern associated with funding or liquidity risk in treasury?
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Correct Answer: B. Inability to meet payment or settlement obligations when due. Funding or liquidity risk focuses on having sufficient liquid assets to cover liabilities.
Question 9: What is the main goal of Asset Liability Management (ALM) in a financial institution?
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Correct Answer: B. To manage risks arising from mismatches between assets and liabilities. ALM specifically addresses interest rate and liquidity risks stemming from the balance sheet structure.
Question 10: What are the three main functional areas typically found in a standard treasury structure?
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Correct Answer: B. Front Office, Back Office, Mid Office. This structure provides a framework for managing different aspects of treasury operations.
Question 11: Which department within treasury is primarily responsible for executing trades?
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Correct Answer: C. Front Office. The Front Office is the dealing or trading arm of the treasury.
Question 12: Which of the following is a key responsibility of the Back Office in treasury operations?
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Correct Answer: C. Trade confirmation and settlement. The Back Office handles the post-trade processing and administrative tasks.
Question 13: Which department in treasury is typically responsible for risk management and compliance monitoring?
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Correct Answer: C. Mid Office. The Mid Office plays a crucial role in overseeing and controlling risks within the treasury function.
Question 14: What is a critical principle regarding the segregation of duties between the Front Office and the Back Office in treasury?
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Correct Answer: B. Their functions must be strictly separated to prevent conflicts of interest. This separation is a fundamental control to reduce the risk of fraud and errors.
Question 15: To whom should the Mid Office ideally report to ensure its independence in risk management?
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Correct Answer: C. Chief Risk Officer (CRO) or a higher authority. Independent reporting ensures that risk management functions are not unduly influenced by trading pressures.
Question 16: What are position limits in treasury designed to control?
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Correct Answer: B. Market risk exposure. Position limits restrict the size of trades and open positions to limit potential losses from market movements.
Question 17: What does NOOPL stand for in the context of foreign exchange limits?
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Correct Answer: B. Net Open Overnight Position Limit. NOOPL is an aggregate limit on the net exposure to different currencies.
Question 18: What is the regulatory capital requirement for foreign exchange risk in India, based on the higher of NOOPL or the actual outstanding net open position?
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Correct Answer: C. 9%. This is a specific regulatory requirement to cover potential losses from foreign exchange fluctuations.
Question 19: Which of the following is an example of a limit typically included under securities trading limits?
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Correct Answer: B. Limit on the size of a single security deal. Securities trading limits aim to control the amount invested in specific securities or issuers.
Question 20: What is the purpose of a stop-loss limit in treasury operations?
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Correct Answer: C. To trigger mandatory closing of a position if a predetermined loss threshold is breached. Stop-loss limits are designed to cap potential losses.
Question 21: How are stop-loss levels typically monitored for trading positions?
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Correct Answer: B. Using Mark-to-Market (MTM) valuations. MTM reflects the current market value of the position, allowing for real-time monitoring of losses.
Question 22: Besides MTM, what other measures might be used to set stop-loss limits for securities trading?
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Correct Answer: B. Value at Risk (VaR) or duration measures. These are more sophisticated risk metrics used for managing potential losses in securities portfolios.
Question 23: What is the primary purpose of setting exposure ceiling limits for counterparties in treasury?
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Correct Answer: B. To control Credit Risk (Default Risk) and Settlement Risk. These limits manage the risk of a counterparty failing to meet their obligations.
Question 24: What is the risk that a counterparty will fail to meet its repayment obligations called?
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Correct Answer: C. Default risk. This is the risk that the other party in a transaction will not fulfill their financial commitments.
Question 25: What is the risk that a counterparty fails to deliver securities or funds after the first party has already done so?
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Correct Answer: B. Settlement risk. This risk arises during the process of exchanging assets and payments.
Question 26: How often should counterparty limits in treasury typically be reviewed?
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Correct Answer: C. At least annually. Regular review ensures that the limits remain appropriate based on the counterparty’s financial health and market conditions.
Question 27: Which of the following is a settlement risk mitigation technique used in treasury?
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Correct Answer: B. Delivery vs. Payment (DvP). DvP ensures that the transfer of securities occurs only if the payment occurs simultaneously.
Question 28: What does the term “Leverage” refer to in the context of treasury and investments?
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Correct Answer: B. Using borrowed funds to potentially increase investment returns. Leverage can amplify both profits and losses.
Question 29: What is the definition of Market Risk in the context of banking?
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Correct Answer: B. The risk of losses in bank positions due to adverse movements in market prices/rates. Market risk is specifically related to fluctuations in market variables.
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT considered a key market variable that contributes to market risk?
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Correct Answer: C. Employee salaries. Employee salaries are an operational expense, not a market variable that directly drives market risk.
Question 31: Market risk is also commonly referred to as what other type of risk?
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Correct Answer: C. Price Risk. Market risk arises from changes in the prices of financial instruments and commodities.
Question 32: Which of the following is a major component of Market Risk?
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Correct Answer: C. Liquidity Risk. Liquidity risk is a significant aspect of overall market risk.
Question 33: What is the primary cause of Liquidity Risk for a financial entity?
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Correct Answer: C. Mismatches in cash inflows/outflows or unexpected funding needs. Liquidity risk stems from the inability to meet short-term cash obligations.
Question 34: What is the risk of loss due to unfavorable changes in interest rates known as?
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Correct Answer: C. Interest Rate Risk. This risk is specifically related to the impact of interest rate fluctuations on financial positions.
Question 35: How does Interest Rate Risk affect a bank’s net interest income?
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Correct Answer: B. Through repricing risk arising from asset-liability maturity mismatches. Changes in interest rates can affect the rates at which assets and liabilities are repriced, impacting net interest income.
Question 36: How does Interest Rate Risk affect the market value of fixed-income assets?
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Correct Answer: B. Through price risk, where value decreases when interest rates rise. Bond prices and interest rates have an inverse relationship.
Question 37: What is Currency Risk also known as?
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Correct Answer: B. Exchange Rate Risk. Currency risk arises from fluctuations in the value of one currency relative to another.
Question 38: What primarily causes Currency Risk for a bank?
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Correct Answer: B. Unfavorable movements in foreign exchange rates. Currency risk directly impacts positions held in foreign currencies.
Question 39: How is Currency Risk linked to Interest Rate Risk?
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Correct Answer: B. Forward exchange rates reflect interest rate differentials between currencies. Interest rate parity is a key concept linking these two risks.
Question 40: What type of risk arises from changes in the prices of stocks?
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Correct Answer: C. Equity Risk. This risk is specific to investments in the stock market.
Question 41: What type of risk is associated with changes in the prices of raw materials like gold?
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Correct Answer: C. Commodity Risk. This risk pertains to the volatility in the prices of commodities.
Question 42: How does market risk directly impact a bank’s treasury operations?
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Correct Answer: B. By affecting treasury profitability and transaction values. Treasury deals with financial instruments whose values are subject to market fluctuations.
Question 43: What is the role of treasury in relation to the bank’s overall Asset-Liability Management (ALM) process concerning market risk?
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Correct Answer: B. Treasury manages market risk and provides inputs to the ALM process. Treasury’s market activities are a key component of the bank’s overall balance sheet management.
Question 44: What primarily influences market movements in financial markets?
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Correct Answer: C. Market participants’ expectations (speculation) about future rate/price changes. Market psychology and anticipated future conditions play a significant role.
Question 45: What is Value at Risk (VaR)?
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Correct Answer: B. A statistical measure estimating the maximum potential loss over a specific period for a given confidence level. VaR helps quantify potential downside risk.
Question 46: What does a 99% confidence level in VaR imply?
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Correct Answer: B. There is a 1% chance of losing more than the VaR amount. The confidence level indicates the probability of losses not exceeding the VaR.
Question 47: Under what market conditions does VaR primarily aim to quantify potential losses?
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Correct Answer: B. Under normal market conditions. VaR is designed to estimate losses within typical market fluctuations.
Question 48: Which of the following is a common approach used to calculate VaR?
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Correct Answer: C. Historical Simulation. This method uses past market data to simulate potential future losses.
Question 49: What does the Parametric VaR approach primarily rely on for its calculation?
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Correct Answer: B. Statistical volatility (standard deviation) and the assumption of a normal distribution of returns. This approach uses statistical parameters to estimate VaR.
Question 50: For what time horizons is VaR often calculated?
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Correct Answer: B. Short horizons like 1-day or 10-days. VaR is typically used for short-term risk assessment.
Question 51: According to the approximate time conversion formula, if the Daily VaR is ₹10 million, what is the approximate VaR for 4 days?
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Correct Answer: B. ₹20 million. VaR for ‘n’ days ≈ Daily VaR × $\sqrt{n}$. So, VaR for 4 days ≈ ₹10 million × $\sqrt{4}$ = ₹10 million × 2 = ₹20 million.
Question 52: What is the purpose of back-testing in the context of VaR?
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Correct Answer: B. To compare predicted VaR with actual profit/loss to assess the model’s accuracy. Back-testing helps validate the effectiveness of the VaR model.
Question 53: What does Duration measure in the context of bonds?
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Correct Answer: C. The sensitivity of a bond’s price to changes in interest rates. Duration quantifies how much a bond’s price might change with interest rate movements.
Question 54: What is Yield to Maturity (YTM) of a bond?
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Correct Answer: C. The total anticipated return if the bond is held until maturity. YTM is a key measure of a bond’s return.
Question 55: What is the relationship between bond prices and changes in yield (interest rates)?
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Correct Answer: B. Bond prices move inversely to changes in yield. When interest rates rise, bond prices typically fall, and vice versa.
Question 56: What does Macaulay Duration represent?
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Correct Answer: C. The weighted average maturity of a bond’s cash flows, expressed in years. Macaulay Duration provides a time-based measure of a bond’s interest rate sensitivity.
Question 57: For a zero-coupon bond, what is equal to its Macaulay Duration?
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Correct Answer: C. Its time to maturity. Since a zero-coupon bond only pays at maturity, the weighted average time to receive cash flows is simply the maturity period.
Question 58: What does Modified Duration (MD) estimate?
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Correct Answer: C. The percentage change in a bond’s price for a 1% change in its yield. Modified Duration is a practical measure of price sensitivity.