CAIIB BRBL Module B UNIT 8 MCQ – The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. Understand India’s Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002: key rules, bank duties, and solved questions for CAIIB BRBL exam preparation.
Question 1: What is a primary purpose of The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002?
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Correct Answer: B. To prevent money laundering and provide for confiscation of property related to it. The Act was specifically enacted to combat money laundering activities and to enable the seizure of assets derived from or involved in such illicit operations.
Question 2: Which chapter in The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, specifically details the obligations of banking companies, financial institutions, and intermediaries?
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Correct Answer: C. Chapter IV. This chapter is dedicated to outlining the duties and responsibilities that banking companies, financial institutions, and intermediaries must adhere to under the Act to prevent the misuse of the financial system for money laundering.
Question 3: What significant change was introduced by The PMLA (Amendment) Act, 2012, regarding the definition of money laundering?
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Correct Answer: C. It enlarged the definition by including activities such as concealment, acquisition, possession, and use of proceeds of crime. This amendment broadened the understanding of money laundering to cover a wider range of actions connected to the proceeds of criminal activities.
Question 4: If the Director, during an inquiry, finds a reporting entity has failed to comply with its obligations, what is the minimum fine that can be levied for each failure under Section 13(2) of the PMLA, as amended?
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Correct Answer: B. Ten thousand rupees. The amended Section 13(2)(d) specifies that the fine imposed on a defaulting reporting entity, its designated director, or any of its employees shall not be less than ten thousand rupees for each instance of non-compliance.
Question 6: According to Section 3 of the PMLA, 2002, which of the following actions connected with the proceeds of crime would constitute the offence of money-laundering?
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Correct Answer: D. Any direct or indirect attempt, assistance, involvement in processes like concealment, possession, acquisition, use, or projecting/claiming proceeds of crime as untainted property. The Act defines the offence broadly to include a wide range of activities related to benefiting from or disguising the origins of illicit funds.
Question 7: What is the minimum term of rigorous imprisonment prescribed under Section 4 of the PMLA, 2002 for committing the offence of money-laundering?
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Correct Answer: C. Three years. Section 4 stipulates that a person found guilty of money-laundering shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term that shall not be less than three years, which can extend up to seven years, along with a fine.
Question 8: Under what circumstance can the maximum term of imprisonment for money-laundering be extended to ten years, as per the proviso to Section 4 of the PMLA, 2002?
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Correct Answer: B. If the proceeds of crime relate to an offence specified under paragraph 2 of Part A of the Schedule. The proviso indicates a more severe punishment if the money laundering is linked to certain grave offences listed in the Schedule to the Act.
Question 9: What is one of the primary obligations of a reporting entity under Section 12(1)(a) of the PMLA, 2002?
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Correct Answer: B. To maintain a record of all transactions in a manner that allows reconstruction of individual transactions. This requirement ensures that there is a clear trail of financial activities which can be examined if necessary.
Question 10: For how long must a reporting entity maintain records of transactions between a client and the reporting entity, as per Section 12(3) of the PMLA, 2002?
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Correct Answer: B. For a period of five years from the date of the transaction. The Act mandates a specific retention period for transaction records to aid in potential future investigations or inquiries.
Question 11: According to Section 12(4) of the PMLA, 2002, how long should records pertaining to the identity of clients be maintained by a reporting entity?
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Correct Answer: B. For five years after the business relationship with the client has ended or the account has been closed, whichever is later. This provision ensures that client identity records are available for a significant period even after the relationship ceases.
Question 13: Under Section 12AA of the PMLA, 2002, what must a reporting entity do prior to the commencement of each specified transaction?
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Correct Answer: B. Verify the identity of the clients undertaking such specified transaction by authentication under the Aadhaar Act, 2016, or other prescribed process. This enhanced due diligence measure aims to confirm the identity of individuals involved in specified transactions.
Question 14: What action must a reporting entity take if a client fails to fulfill the conditions for enhanced due diligence laid down under Section 12AA(1) of the PMLA, 2002?
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Correct Answer: C. Not allow the specified transaction to be carried out. If the client does not comply with the enhanced due diligence requirements, the reporting entity is prohibited from proceeding with that specified transaction.
Question 15: How long must the information obtained while applying enhanced due diligence measures under Section 12AA(1) be maintained by the reporting entity?
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Correct Answer: B. For five years from the date of the transaction. Similar to general transaction records, information gathered through enhanced due diligence must also be preserved for a five-year period.
Question 16: Which of the following is defined as a “specified transaction” for the purposes of Section 12AA (Enhanced Due Diligence) of the PMLA, 2002?
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Correct Answer: B. Any transaction in foreign exchange, exceeding a prescribed amount. The explanation for Section 12AA lists specific types of transactions that require enhanced due diligence, including certain foreign exchange transactions over a set threshold.
Question 17: What protection is afforded to a reporting entity, its directors, or officers for furnishing information to the Director under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of Section 12 of the PMLA, 2002, as per Section 14?
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Correct Answer: B. No civil or criminal proceedings can lie against them for furnishing such information. This provision protects reporting entities and their personnel from legal repercussions when they comply with their obligation to report suspicious or prescribed transactions.
Question 18: Under Rule 3 of The Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, what is the threshold for a single cash transaction that a reporting entity must maintain a record of?
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Correct Answer: C. More than ten lakh rupees or its equivalent in foreign currency. Reporting entities are required to maintain records of all individual cash transactions that exceed this specified value.
Question 19: If a series of cash transactions, individually valued below ten lakh rupees, takes place within a month and the monthly aggregate exceeds ten lakh rupees, what is the reporting entity’s obligation under Rule 3?
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Correct Answer: B. To maintain a record of these integrally connected transactions. The rules require tracking series of smaller transactions that are linked and collectively surpass the ten lakh rupees threshold within a month.
Question 20: What value of receipts by non-profit organizations triggers the requirement for a reporting entity to maintain a record under Rule 3(BA)?
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Correct Answer: C. More than ten lakh rupees, or its equivalent in foreign currency. Transactions involving receipts by NPOs exceeding this value must be recorded by reporting entities.
Question 21: Which type of transaction involving forged or counterfeit currency notes must be recorded by a reporting entity under Rule 3(C)?
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Correct Answer: C. All cash transactions where forged or counterfeit currency notes or bank notes have been used as genuine. This rule ensures that any attempt to use counterfeit currency, regardless of the amount or client’s knowledge at the point of transaction by the reporting entity, is documented.
Question 22: According to Rule 3(D), which of the following categories requires the maintenance of records for all suspicious transactions, whether or not made in cash?
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Correct Answer: C. All suspicious transactions including deposits, withdrawals, transfers, loans, investments, and collection services, among others. The rule broadly covers various types of financial dealings that are deemed suspicious, irrespective of whether they involve physical cash.
Question 23: What is the value threshold for cross-border wire transfers that mandates a reporting entity to maintain records, where either the origin or destination of funds is in India, as per Rule 3(E)?
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Correct Answer: C. More than five lakh rupees or its equivalent in foreign currency. Reporting entities must keep records of all cross-border wire transfers exceeding this amount if India is either the source or the recipient of the funds.
Question 24: What information must records maintained by a reporting entity contain, as specified by Rule 4, to permit the reconstruction of individual transactions?
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Correct Answer: C. The nature, amount (and currency), date, and parties to the transaction. Rule 4 mandates that records must include these key details to enable a full understanding and reconstruction of each transaction if required.
Question 25: What is the minimum value for the purchase or sale of immovable property by any person, registered by a reporting entity, that necessitates the maintenance of records under Rule 3(F)?
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Correct Answer: C. Fifty lakh rupees or more. If a reporting entity registers a purchase or sale of immovable property valued at fifty lakh rupees or higher, it is required to maintain records of such a transaction.
Question 26: According to Rule 4 of The Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, which of the following is NOT explicitly listed as information to be contained in records for reconstructing individual transactions?
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Correct Answer: C. The occupation of the parties to the transaction. While client identity is important, Rule 4 specifically lists the nature, amount, currency, date, and parties as necessary information for transaction reconstruction, not explicitly the occupation of the parties within this particular rule’s list.
Question 27: As per Rule 6 of The Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, in what format should information regarding transactions be maintained?
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Correct Answer: C. In hard and soft copies in accordance with procedures specified by RBI or SEBI. The rule requires maintenance in both physical and electronic forms, adhering to guidelines set by regulatory bodies like the Reserve Bank of India or the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
Question 28: By which day of the succeeding month must the Principal Officer of a reporting entity furnish information on transactions referred to in clauses (A), (B), (BA), (C), and (E) of sub-rule (1) of Rule 3 to the Director, as per Rule 8?
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Correct Answer: C. By the 15th day of the succeeding month. Rule 8 specifies this deadline for monthly reporting of certain categories of transactions to the Director.
Question 29: How quickly must the Principal Officer of a reporting entity furnish information to the Director regarding suspicious transactions (referred to in clause (D) of sub-rule (1) of Rule 3), after being satisfied that the transaction is suspicious?
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Correct Answer: B. Not later than seven working days. For suspicious transactions, the rules mandate prompt reporting in writing, by fax, or by electronic mail, within seven working days of forming the suspicion.
Question 30: What is the reporting frequency for information concerning transactions related to the purchase and sale of immovable property valued at fifty lakh rupees or more (clause (F) of sub-rule (1) of Rule 3) to the Director?
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Correct Answer: B. Every quarter by the 15th day of the month succeeding the quarter. Transactions involving high-value immovable property have a quarterly reporting cycle to the Director.
Question 31: According to Rule 8(4), what does a delay of each day in reporting a transaction or rectifying a mis-reported transaction beyond the specified time limit constitute?
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Correct Answer: C. A separate violation for each day of delay. The rules treat each day of delay in reporting or rectifying misreported information as an individual breach, potentially leading to multiple penalties.
Question 32: When are banking companies mandated to verify and maintain records of a client’s identity, current address, permanent address, nature of business, and financial status?
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Correct Answer: B. At the time of opening an account or executing any transaction with it. The rules require verification at the initiation of the relationship or transaction, though there is provision for verification within a reasonable time if not immediately possible.
Question 33: If it is not possible for a banking company to verify the identity of a client at the time of opening an account, what is the stipulated course of action?
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Correct Answer: C. The banking company shall verify the identity of the client within a reasonable time after the account has been opened. The rules allow for a practical approach where verification can follow shortly after account opening or transaction execution if immediate verification is not feasible.
Question 34: For an individual client, what kind of document is required for verification of their identity and addresses?
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Correct Answer: C. One certified copy of an officially valid document containing details of permanent address, and current address. The rules specify the need for an officially recognized document for robust identity and address verification of individual clients.
Question 35: Which of the following documents is NOT typically required for the verification of identity of a company by a banking company?
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Correct Answer: C. Personal income tax returns of all directors. While the company’s financial status is relevant, the rules list incorporation documents, constitutional documents like MoA and AoA, and authorization documents for account operators, not typically the personal tax returns of all directors for KYC purposes.
Question 36: For a partnership firm, which set of documents is generally required for client identity verification by a banking company?
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Correct Answer: B. Registration certificate, partnership deed, and an officially valid document for the person acting in the transaction. These documents help establish the legal existence of the firm, its constitution, and the identity of the authorized transactor.
Question 37: In the case of a Trust, which of the following documents would a banking company require for verification purposes?
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Correct Answer: C. Registration certificate, Trust deed, and an officially valid document for the person acting in the transaction. These documents are essential to verify the legal status of the trust, its governing rules, and the authority of the person conducting transactions on its behalf.
Question 38: For an unincorporated association, what documentation might a banking company require to establish its legal existence and verify the person conducting transactions?
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Correct Answer: B. Resolution of the managing body, power of attorney, and information to establish legal existence. Since unincorporated associations may lack formal registration documents like companies, these alternative documents are used to ascertain their legitimacy and authorized representatives.
Question 39: For how long must records relating to the identity of clients be maintained by a banking company after the cessation of transactions between the client and the banking company?
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Correct Answer: C. For five years. The rules mandate a retention period of five years for client identity records after the conclusion of the business relationship or transactions.
Question 40: In the Rose Valley money laundering case, what was the primary allegation against Rose Valley Real Estate Construction Limited and its associate companies?
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Correct Answer: B. Illegally raising money from the public by floating Secured Non-Convertible Debentures and laundering it. The company was accused of collecting funds from numerous individuals through debentures and then channeling these funds into various movable properties to disguise their illicit origin.
Question 41: In the Galaxy Impex money laundering case, how was the foreign outward remittance of approximately USD 28 lakh (about Rs. 18.66 crore) facilitated?
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Correct Answer: B. By opening a current account using forged identity documents and without disclosing the beneficial owner. The method involved using fraudulent documents to establish a business account, which was then used for making significant foreign remittances while hiding the true beneficiary.
Question 42: What was the nature of the illegal activity that led to the money laundering charges in the drug-related case involving Allauddin Sheikh, where opium and poppy husk were seized?
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Correct Answer: C. Illicit trade in opium and poppy husk. The case originated from the seizure of substantial quantities of narcotics, indicating regular illegal drug trading, the proceeds of which were then laundered.
Question 43: For what offence was former Jharkhand Minister Shri Hari Narayan Rai convicted in January 2017 under the PMLA?
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Correct Answer: B. For laundering funds amounting to over Rs. 3.72 crore, acquired through misappropriation of public money. He was found guilty of misusing his official position to illegally acquire public funds and then channeling them through various assets and companies to make them appear legitimate.
Question 44: What was a key method used by Shri Hari Narayan Rai to launder his illegal income, as indicated in the case summary?
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Correct Answer: B. Establishing construction companies and a dairy firm in the names of his wife and brother to channel funds. The laundered money was routed through businesses set up under the names of his relatives to project the illicit income as legitimate earnings.
Question 45: What was the primary stated reason for the enactment of The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002?
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Correct Answer: B. To prevent money laundering. The principal objective of the legislation is to combat the offence of money laundering and related illicit financial activities.
Question 46: What does the term “Nostro account” typically refer to in banking?
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Correct Answer: B. An account held by a domestic bank in the currency of the country where the funds are held, with a foreign bank. A Nostro account is “our account” with your bank, meaning a bank’s account held with a bank in a foreign country, denominated in the foreign currency.
Question 47: What is a “Vostro account” in the context of banking?
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Correct Answer: A. An account that a foreign bank holds with a domestic bank, in the domestic bank’s currency. A Vostro account is “your account” with our bank, representing an account maintained by a foreign bank with a bank in the reporting country, denominated in the local currency.
Question 48: Is it true or false that The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, does not apply to banking transactions?
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Correct Answer: B. False. The Act and its rules specifically include obligations for banking companies and financial institutions, making it very much applicable to banking transactions to prevent their misuse for money laundering.
Question 49: Is it true or false that the term “money laundering” has been explicitly defined in The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002?
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Correct Answer: B. False. While Section 3 describes what constitutes the “offence of money-laundering,” the Act itself does not provide a separate, explicit definition of the term “money laundering” in a definitional section. Instead, it defines the offence through the activities involved.
Question 50: Is it true or false that as per the rules framed under the PMLA, records of transactions are to be maintained for ten years?
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Correct Answer: B. False. Records referred to in clause (a) of sub-section (1) of Section 12 (which are general transaction records) are to be maintained for a period of five years from the date of the transaction, and client identity records for five years after the business relationship ends or account closure.