CAIIB BRBL Module A UNIT 1 MCQ – Legal Framework of Regulation of Banks.
Question 1: Banking operations in India are primarily governed by two main legislative frameworks. Which are these?
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Correct Answer: B. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. These two Acts form the core legal framework for regulating banking activities in India.
Question 2: Who exercises regulatory control over banks in India, besides the Reserve Bank of India?
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Correct Answer: C. The Government of India. Both the Reserve Bank of India and the Government of India share regulatory control over the banking sector.
Question 3: How does the constitution of a bank (like a statutory corporation, banking company, or co-operative society) affect banking regulations?
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Correct Answer: C. It influences the specific regulations that apply to the bank. The legal form under which a bank is constituted determines the specific set of regulations that govern its operations.
Question 4: What is the fundamental activity that defines the business of banking?
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Correct Answer: B. Accepting deposits from the public for lending or investment. The core function of banking, as defined in the Banking Regulation Act, is receiving money deposits from the public with the purpose of using those funds for providing loans or making investments.
Question 5: Regarding deposits accepted in banking, how must they be repayable and withdrawable?
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Correct Answer: B. Repayable on demand or otherwise, and withdrawable by instruments like cheque. A key characteristic of banking deposits is their flexibility in repayment (on demand or later) and the ability to withdraw using instruments such as cheques, as outlined in the Banking Regulation Act.
Question 6: Which of the following is identified as a key component of the business of banking?
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Correct Answer: C. Acceptance of deposits from the public. Accepting money deposits from the general public is a fundamental element that defines the business of banking.
Question 7: For what purpose do banks accept deposits from the public?
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Correct Answer: C. For lending or investment purposes. Deposits accepted by banks are intended to be utilised for extending credit through loans or making investments in various financial instruments.
Question 8: Deposits in banking are repayable on demand or in what other manner?
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Correct Answer: C. After a specified period. Banking deposits can be structured for repayment either immediately upon request or after a predetermined time duration.
Question 9: The funds accepted as deposits in the business of banking must specifically consist of what?
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Correct Answer: C. Money only. The definition of banking specifies the acceptance of money as deposits.
Question 10: Apart from banking companies, the RBI, and the SBI, which other entities are authorised to accept deposits withdrawable by cheque, typically under an exemption?
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Correct Answer: B. Government-run savings bank schemes. While generally restricted, government-run savings bank schemes are allowed to accept deposits withdrawable by cheque as an exemption.
Question 11: Accepting deposits withdrawable by cheque is restricted to specific entities. Which type of entity is generally NOT permitted to accept such deposits?
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Correct Answer: D. A private individual or a business not licensed as a bank. The authority to accept deposits that can be withdrawn by cheque is legally limited to regulated banking entities and specific exceptions.
Question 12: Who regulates the acceptance of public deposits by entities that are not classified as banks?
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Correct Answer: C. The Reserve Bank of India. The RBI has regulatory authority over non-banking entities that accept deposits from the public.
Question 13: What is a mandatory requirement from the Reserve Bank of India for any entity that wants to conduct banking business?
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Correct Answer: B. Obtaining a licence from the RBI. As per the Banking Regulation Act, a licence from the Reserve Bank of India is compulsory to carry out banking business.
Question 14: The use of the word “bank” in an entity’s name is legally restricted. To which entities is the use of “bank” in their name generally confined?
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Correct Answer: C. Licensed banking companies. Generally, only entities that hold a valid banking licence are permitted to use the word “bank” in their name, as specified in the Banking Regulation Act.
Question 15: Besides accepting deposits and lending, banks are allowed to engage in certain other types of business. Which is a permitted activity for banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Dealing in bills of exchange. Activities such as dealing in bills of exchange are among the types of business that banks are permitted to conduct, as listed in the Banking Regulation Act.
Question 16: Which business activity is explicitly prohibited for banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Direct or indirect trading activities in goods. Banks are prohibited from engaging in the business of buying and selling goods, either directly or indirectly, under the Banking Regulation Act.
Question 17: In the context of prohibited business for banks, certain items are excluded from the definition of “goods”. What is included in this exclusion?
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Correct Answer: C. Actionable claims, stocks, shares, money, bullion, and specified instruments. These financial and legal items are specifically excluded from the definition of “goods” when determining business activities prohibited for banks.
Question 18: Banks may acquire assets, particularly immovable property, when recovering defaulted loans. If this property is not for the bank’s own use, what must happen?
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Correct Answer: C. It must be disposed of within a specified period. Immovable property acquired by a bank in satisfaction of claims, if not for its own use, must be sold off within a timeframe stipulated by the Banking Regulation Act.
Question 19: What is the initial maximum period allowed for a bank to dispose of immovable property not used for its own business?
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Correct Answer: C. Seven years. Under the Banking Regulation Act, a bank must generally dispose of immovable property acquired (not for its own use) within seven years.
Question 20: The Reserve Bank of India can grant an extension for the disposal period of non-banking immovable assets. What is the maximum duration of this extension?
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Correct Answer: C. Up to five years. The Reserve Bank of India has the authority to extend the seven-year period for disposing of non-banking immovable assets by a maximum of five additional years.
Question 21: What does the term ‘KYC Norms’ primarily relate to in banking?
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Correct Answer: C. Customer identification and verification procedures. KYC, or Know Your Customer, refers to the standard process banks use to confirm the identity of their customers, crucial for security and compliance.
Question 22: Why are KYC norms important, especially when opening a new bank account?
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Correct Answer: B. To comply with anti-money laundering and counter-terrorism financing regulations. Implementing KYC procedures helps banks identify customers and prevent their services from being used for illegal activities like money laundering and terrorist financing.
Question 23: What are the main functions of the Reserve Bank of India concerning other banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Licensing, regulation, and supervision of banks. The RBI is empowered to issue licences to banks, set rules for their operation, and oversee their activities to ensure the stability of the banking system.
Question 24: The Reserve Bank of India issues directives and guidelines to banks. What is the nature of these issuances?
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Correct Answer: C. Mandatory instructions and rules. Directives and guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India are binding instructions that licensed banks must comply with.
Question 25: Banks in India can be established under different legal structures. Besides being a company or a co-operative society, what is another form of constitution?
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Correct Answer: C. A body corporate created under a special statute. Some banks are formed as distinct corporate entities specifically established by an Act of Parliament or a State Legislature.
Question 26: Public Sector Banks (excluding the largest one) were primarily constituted under which Acts?
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Correct Answer: B. The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Acts of 1970 and 1980. These Acts were instrumental in the nationalisation and establishment of several public sector banks as statutory bodies.
Question 27: Under which specific Act was the State Bank of India established?
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Correct Answer: C. The State Bank of India Act, 1955. The State Bank of India was constituted under its dedicated legislative Act.
Question 28: Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are established under which specific Act?
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Correct Answer: C. The Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976. Regional Rural Banks were established under this specific Act to cater to rural financial needs.
Question 29: Private Sector Banks in India are typically formed as companies under which legislative framework?
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Correct Answer: C. The Companies Act. Private sector banks are generally incorporated and governed as companies under the provisions of the Companies Act.
Question 30: How are Foreign Banks operating in India typically constituted in their home country?
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Correct Answer: C. As foreign companies. Banks from other countries operating in India are typically structured as companies according to the laws of their country of origin.
Question 31: What is the foundational principle behind the operation of Co-operative Banks?
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Correct Answer: C. A co-operative basis focused on thrift, self-help, and co-operation. Co-operative banks operate based on principles of mutual assistance and shared goals among members, promoting saving and co-operation.
Question 32: Co-operative banks operating across multiple states are governed by which specific Act?
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Correct Answer: B. The Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act. Co-operative societies, including banks, with operations extending beyond a single state are regulated under this specific Act.
Question 33: The Banking Laws (Application to Co-operative Societies) Act, 1965 extended the application of which two key banking Acts to co-operative banks?
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Correct Answer: B. The Banking Regulation Act and The Reserve Bank of India Act. This Act brought co-operative banks under the regulatory purview of the main laws governing banking and the central bank in India.
Question 34: A significant amendment in 2020 enhanced the regulatory control of which body over co-operative banks?
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Correct Answer: C. The Reserve Bank of India. The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 increased the Reserve Bank of India’s powers regarding the regulation and supervision of co-operative banks.
Question 35: What were the primary objectives behind the enactment of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934?
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Correct Answer: B. To regulate bank note issuance, maintain monetary stability, and operate the currency and credit system. The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 was enacted with the core aims of managing the nation’s currency, ensuring stability of the monetary system, and controlling the credit and currency mechanisms.
Question 36: When did the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, come into effect?
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Correct Answer: B. March 6, 1934. The Reserve Bank of India Act came into force on this date, establishing the legal framework for the central bank.
Question 37: The Reserve Bank of India Act primarily governs the structure and functions of the RBI. Does it directly regulate all aspects of every bank in the banking system?
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Correct Answer: B. No, it focuses on the central bank’s role, while other laws like the Banking Regulation Act cover broader aspects of banking. The RBI Act primarily deals with the constitution and core functions of the central bank, while wider regulation of the banking system falls under other legislation like the Banking Regulation Act.
Question 38: Under the Reserve Bank of India Act, Scheduled Banks are required to maintain a specific type of balance with the RBI. What is this requirement?
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Correct Answer: B. Maintaining cash reserves with the RBI. As mandated by the Reserve Bank of India Act, Scheduled Banks are required to hold a certain portion of their deposits as cash reserves with the central bank.
Question 39: What is the main purpose of requiring Scheduled Banks to maintain cash reserves with the RBI?
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Correct Answer: C. To aid in credit system regulation and monetary stability. The requirement for banks to maintain cash reserves with the RBI is a tool used by the central bank to manage liquidity in the banking system and influence monetary policy for stability.
Question 40: A provision in the Reserve Bank of India Act allows the RBI to directly discount bills of exchange and promissory notes under specific circumstances. What is the purpose of this power?
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Correct Answer: B. To regulate credit in the interests of trade, industry, and agriculture. This power under the Reserve Bank of India Act allows the central bank to influence the availability of credit to support key sectors of the economy.
Question 41: Who is responsible for overseeing the affairs of the Reserve Bank of India?
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Correct Answer: C. The Central Board of Directors. The management and overall direction of the Reserve Bank of India are vested in its Central Board of Directors.
Question 42: The Central Board of Directors of the RBI includes individuals nominated by the central government. How many government officials are nominated to this board?
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Correct Answer: B. Two. The central government nominates two government officials to be members of the Reserve Bank of India’s Central Board.
Question 43: How many directors are nominated to the RBI’s Central Board from the local boards?
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Correct Answer: C. Four. There are four directors on the Central Board of the Reserve Bank of India who are nominated from the local boards.
Question 44: What defines a bank as a “Scheduled Bank” according to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934?
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Correct Answer: B. Being a bank listed in the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934. Banks that meet specific criteria and are included in the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act are designated as Scheduled Banks.
Question 45: Besides being listed in the Second Schedule, what criterion specified in the Reserve Bank of India Act must a bank generally meet to be a Scheduled Bank?
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Correct Answer: C. Maintaining a minimum paid-up capital and reserves. The Reserve Bank of India Act sets requirements regarding minimum paid-up capital and reserves that banks must meet to be eligible for classification as a Scheduled Bank.
Question 46: Which section of the Reserve Bank of India Act grants the RBI the exclusive right to issue bank notes?
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Correct Answer: C. Section 22. This section of the Reserve Bank of India Act confers upon the RBI the sole authority for issuing currency notes in the country.
Question 47: Under which section of the Reserve Bank of India Act does the Central Government have the power to supersede the Central Board of the RBI?
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Correct Answer: C. Section 30. This section of the Reserve Bank of India Act provides the Central Government with the legal power to take control of the functions of the RBI’s Central Board under certain circumstances.
Question 48: What is the primary role of an entity referred to as the “Lender of Last Resort”?
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Correct Answer: C. Providing emergency funds to financial institutions facing liquidity problems. The function of a Lender of Last Resort is to step in and provide temporary funding to banks or other financial institutions that are unable to obtain funds elsewhere, preventing a potential financial crisis.
Question 50: What is the definition of a “Lender of Last Resort”?
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Correct Answer: C. An entity that provides emergency funds to financial institutions. A Lender of Last Resort is an institution, typically the central bank, that provides temporary liquidity to banks and other financial institutions when they are in distress and cannot access funds from the market.
Question 51: What was the original name of the legislation enacted on March 16, 1949, that regulates banking in India?
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Correct Answer: C. The Banking Companies Act. The legislation regulating banking in India was initially enacted as The Banking Companies Act, 1949.
Question 52: When did the Banking Companies Act, 1949, get renamed as the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
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Correct Answer: B. March 1, 1966. The Act was renamed from The Banking Companies Act to The Banking Regulation Act on March 1, 1966.
Question 53: In which year was the application of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, extended to Jammu and Kashmir?
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Correct Answer: C. 1956. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, was extended to apply to Jammu and Kashmir starting from 1956.
Question 54: The application of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, was extended to Co-operative Banks in which year?
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Correct Answer: D. 1965. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, was extended to include Co-operative Banks in 1965.
Question 55: Which of the following is a key objective of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
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Correct Answer: B. To provide specific legislation for the business of banking. A primary objective of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, is to provide specific legal framework for the banking business in India.
Question 56: What is another stated objective of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, concerning bank failures?
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Correct Answer: B. To prevent bank failures by prescribing minimum capital requirements. The Act aims to prevent bank failures by stipulating minimum capital requirements for banks.
Question 57: Besides preventing bank failures, the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, also aims to ensure which aspect of banking companies?
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Correct Answer: C. Balanced development and growth. The Act seeks to ensure balanced development and growth of banking companies.
Question 58: The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, grants specific powers to which entity?
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Correct Answer: B. The Reserve Bank of India. The Act gives specific powers to the Reserve Bank of India regarding the regulation of banks.
Question 59: What is one of the key interests that the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, aims to safeguard?
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Correct Answer: C. The interest of Depositors. Safeguarding the interest of depositors is a key objective of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Question 60: A 2020 amendment to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, enhanced the regulatory control of which entity over Co-operative Banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Reserve Bank of India. The 2020 amendment increased the Reserve Bank of India’s regulatory control over Co-operative Banks.
Question 61: Which aspects of Co-operative Banks did the 2020 amendment to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, bring under enhanced RBI control?
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Correct Answer: B. Management, capital, audit, and liquidation. The 2020 amendment enhanced RBI control over the management, capital, audit, and liquidation of Co-operative Banks.
Question 62: What was a condition for certain agricultural credit societies to be exempted from the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, following the 2020 amendment?
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Correct Answer: C. They must not use “bank” in their name and not act as drawees of cheques. The exemption for certain agricultural credit societies required them not to use the word “bank” in their name and not to function as drawees of cheques.
Question 63: What did the amendment to Section 3 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, clarify?
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Correct Answer: B. Which cooperative societies are exempt from the Act. The amendment to Section 3 clarified which types of cooperative societies are exempt from the provisions of the Act.
Question 64: Which sections were introduced into the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, by a 2017 amendment?
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Correct Answer: C. Sections 35AA and 35AB. Sections 35AA and 35AB were introduced into the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, by an amendment in 2017.
Question 66: What was established by a 2012 amendment to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
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Correct Answer: B. The Depositor Education and Awareness Fund. The Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF) was established by a 2012 amendment to the Act.
Question 67: What is the purpose of the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF)?
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Correct Answer: B. To manage unclaimed deposits. The DEAF is intended to manage deposits in banks that have remained unclaimed for a significant period.
Question 68: Deposits remaining unclaimed for how many years are handled by the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF)?
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Correct Answer: C. 10+ years. The DEAF handles deposits that have remained unclaimed for ten years or more.
Question 69: Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the Reserve Bank of India is authorised to perform which key function regarding banks?
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Correct Answer: B. Licensing banks. The Act grants the RBI the authority to issue licenses for conducting banking business.
Question 70: Which of the following is a regulatory power of the Reserve Bank of India under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
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Correct Answer: B. Regulating shareholding and voting rights in banks. The RBI has the power to regulate the shareholding and voting rights in banking companies.
Question 71: The Reserve Bank of India supervises appointments related to which aspects of banks under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
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Correct Answer: B. Board and management. The RBI supervises appointments to the board and management of banks.
Question 72: Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the Reserve Bank of India oversees which general aspect of banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Their operations. The RBI oversees the general operations of banks under the Act.
Question 74: The Reserve Bank of India has control over which processes concerning troubled banks under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
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Correct Answer: B. Moratoriums, mergers, and liquidations. The RBI has control over moratoriums, mergers, and liquidations of banks.
Question 75: What type of directives can the Reserve Bank of India issue to banks under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
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Correct Answer: B. Directives on public interest and banking policy. The RBI can issue directives to banks on matters related to public interest and banking policy.
Question 76: Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the Reserve Bank of India has the power to impose what upon banks for non-compliance?
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Correct Answer: B. Penalties. The RBI can impose penalties on banks under the provisions of the Act.
Question 77: What type of inspections does the Reserve Bank of India conduct under Section 35 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
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Correct Answer: B. Annual Financial Inspections (AFI). Section 35 of the Act empowers the RBI to conduct Annual Financial Inspections of banks.
Question 78: The Reserve Bank of India performs risk assessments of banks using which approach?
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Correct Answer: C. Risk Based Supervision. The RBI uses Risk Based Supervision for conducting risk assessments of banks.
Question 79: What does the term “Risk Based Supervision” involve in the context of RBI’s role?
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Correct Answer: B. Comprehensive risk assessment of banks. Risk Based Supervision refers to a comprehensive approach taken by the RBI to assess the risks within banking institutions.
Question 80: What is “SPARC” utilised by the Reserve Bank of India in its supervisory process?
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Correct Answer: C. Supervisory Program on Assessment of Risk and Capital. SPARC stands for Supervisory Program on Assessment of Risk and Capital, which is used by the RBI.
Question 81: Section 35 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, grants the RBI power for what specific activity?
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Correct Answer: B. Conducting Annual Financial Inspection (AFI). Section 35 provides the RBI with the power to conduct Annual Financial Inspections.
Question 82: Under which sections of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, does the RBI have authority to initiate insolvency resolution?
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Correct Answer: C. Sections 35AA and 35AB. Sections 35AA and 35AB grant the RBI the authority to initiate insolvency resolution proceedings.
Question 83: Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, deals with which specific aspect?
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Correct Answer: C. Application of the Act to Co-operative Banks. Section 56 details how the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, is applied to Co-operative Banks.
Question 84: What does the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF) primarily manage?
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Correct Answer: B. Unclaimed deposits. The DEAF is a fund specifically created to manage deposits that have not been claimed for a specified period.
Question 85: What is the nature of Risk Based Supervision as performed by the RBI?
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Correct Answer: C. A comprehensive risk assessment approach. Risk Based Supervision is characterised as a comprehensive method for assessing the risks within banks.
Question 86: The Reserve Bank of India was constituted under which specific section of the RBI Act, 1934?
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Correct Answer: C. Section 3. The Reserve Bank of India was established under Section 3 of the RBI Act, 1934.
Question 87: One of the original responsibilities of the Reserve Bank of India upon its foundation was related to bank notes. What was this responsibility?
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Correct Answer: C. Regulating bank note issuance. A core original responsibility of the RBI was regulating the issuance of bank notes.
Question 88: Besides regulating bank note issuance, what was another original responsibility of the RBI concerning monetary stability?
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Correct Answer: B. Maintaining reserves. Maintaining reserves for monetary stability was an original responsibility of the RBI.
Question 89: What was an original responsibility of the RBI related to the currency and credit system?
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Correct Answer: B. To operate the currency and credit system effectively. Operating the currency and credit system effectively was among the initial responsibilities of the RBI.
Question 90: What is a modern key role of the Reserve Bank of India?
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Correct Answer: B. Regulating banks and financial institutions. A significant modern role of the RBI is that of regulator for banks and financial institutions.
Question 91: The Reserve Bank of India’s regulatory powers over banks are derived from which legislation?
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Correct Answer: C. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The RBI derives its regulatory powers over banks from the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Question 92: In its role concerning banks, the Reserve Bank of India exercises powers as both a regulator and what else?
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Correct Answer: C. A supervisor. The RBI acts as both a regulator and a supervisor of banks.
Question 93: Issuing banking licenses is a key power of which entity under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
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Correct Answer: C. Reserve Bank of India. The RBI has the key power of issuing licenses for banking operations.
Question 94: The Reserve Bank of India has powers related to the governance of banks, specifically concerning the appointment and removal of whom?
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Correct Answer: B. Banking boards/personnel. The RBI has powers regarding the appointment and removal of banking boards and personnel.
Question 95: Regulating the operations of banks is a business regulation power held by which entity?
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Correct Answer: C. Reserve Bank of India. The RBI holds the power to regulate the business operations of banks.
Question 96: What is one of the key powers of the Reserve Bank of India regarding instructions to banks?
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Correct Answer: A. Issuing mandatory directives. The RBI has the power to issue mandatory directives to banks.
Question 97: The Reserve Bank of India’s powers include inspection and supervision to oversee which aspect of banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Their activities. The RBI has powers of inspection and supervision to oversee the activities of banks.
Question 98: Regulating bank audits is a power exercised by which regulatory body?
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Correct Answer: C. Reserve Bank of India. The RBI has the power to regulate bank audits.
Question 99: What type of information does the Reserve Bank of India collect, collate, and furnish?
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Correct Answer: B. Credit information. The RBI is empowered to collect, collate, and furnish credit information.
Question 100: The Reserve Bank of India has powers related to the restructuring of banks, including managing which processes?
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Correct Answer: C. Moratoriums, amalgamations, and winding up. The RBI has powers to manage moratoriums, amalgamations, and winding up processes for banks.
Question 101: What action can the Reserve Bank of India take upon banks for violations of regulations?
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Correct Answer: C. Impose penalties. The RBI is empowered to impose penalties on banks for non-compliance with regulations.
Question 102: The regulation and supervision of Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) is the responsibility of which department within the RBI?
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Correct Answer: C. Department of Non-Banking Supervision. The Department of Non-Banking Supervision (DNBS) within the RBI is responsible for regulating and supervising NBFCs.
Question 103: Chapter III B and C, and Chapter V of which Act provide the legal basis for the RBI’s regulation and supervision of NBFCs?
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Correct Answer: C. The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Chapter III B and C, and Chapter V of the RBI Act, 1934, form the legal basis for NBFC regulation by the RBI.
Question 104: Recent amendments in 2019 granted which entity increased control over NBFCs?
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Correct Answer: D. Reserve Bank of India. Amendments in 2019 enhanced the RBI’s control over NBFCs.
Question 105: The Reserve Bank of India may control the management of a regulated NBFC by taking which actions?
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Correct Answer: B. Replacing directors or superseding its board. The RBI can control NBFC management by replacing directors or superseding the board.
Question 106: For what duration can the Reserve Bank of India remove or debar an auditor from exercising duties for an RBI regulated entity for non-compliance?
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Correct Answer: B. Up to 3 years. The RBI has the power to remove or debar an auditor for up to 3 years for non-compliance.
Question 107: The Reserve Bank of India is empowered to frame schemes for which actions concerning NBFCs to make them viable?
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Correct Answer: C. Amalgamation, reconstruction, or splitting. The RBI can frame schemes for amalgamation, reconstruction, or splitting of NBFCs.
Question 108: What type of information can the Reserve Bank of India require NBFCs to provide, and what associated activities can it conduct?
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Correct Answer: C. Information on group companies and conduct inspections/audits. The RBI can require NBFCs to provide information on their group companies and can conduct inspections or audits.
Question 109: What is the primary regulator of banking in India?
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Correct Answer: C. The Reserve Bank of India. The RBI is identified as the primary regulator of banking in India.
Question 110: Besides the primary regulator, which other entity holds extensive regulatory powers over banks under the RBI Act and the Banking Regulation Act?
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Correct Answer: C. The Central Government. The Central Government also holds extensive regulatory powers over banks.
Question 111: The Central Government’s powers related to bank regulation can be of what nature?
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Correct Answer: C. Both direct and indirect. The Central Government’s powers in bank regulation can be direct or indirect.
Question 112: The Central Government plays a role in the governance of the RBI through which action?
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Correct Answer: B. Appointing and removing the RBI Governor and Central Board members. The Central Government is involved in the appointment and removal of the RBI Governor and Central Board members.
Question 113: What is the relationship between the Central Government and the Reserve Bank of India in terms of ownership?
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Correct Answer: D. Central Government is the sole shareholder of the RBI. The Central Government is the sole shareholder of the Reserve Bank of India.
Question 114: Under which section of the RBI Act does the Central Government have the power to issue directives to the RBI in the public interest?
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Correct Answer: D. Section 7(1). Section 7(1) of the RBI Act allows the Central Government to issue directives to the RBI in the public interest.
Question 115: The Central Government acts as an appellate authority for appeals against certain RBI decisions. Which type of decision falls under this?
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Correct Answer: B. Removal of bank managerial personnel. The Central Government handles appeals against the RBI’s decisions regarding the removal of bank managerial personnel.
Question 116: Appeals against the cancellation of banking licenses by the RBI can be handled by which authority?
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Correct Answer: C. Central Government. The Central Government serves as an appellate authority for appeals against the cancellation of banking licenses by the RBI.
Question 117: Under which section of the Banking Regulation Act does the Central Government handle appeals against the cancellation of banking licenses?
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Correct Answer: C. Section 22. Section 22 of the BR Act pertains to appeals against the cancellation of banking licenses, which are handled by the Central Government.
Question 118: The Central Government is the appellate authority for the refusal of a certificate regarding what on bank assets?
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Correct Answer: C. Floating charge. The Central Government handles appeals related to the refusal of a certificate regarding a floating charge on bank assets.
Question 119: Under which section of the Banking Regulation Act does the Central Government handle appeals regarding floating charge on assets?
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Correct Answer: B. Section 14A. Section 14A of the BR Act deals with appeals regarding the refusal of a certificate concerning a floating charge on assets, with the Central Government as the appellate authority.
Question 120: The Central Government has powers related to the operational control of banks, including the suspension of bank operations or exemptions from BR Act provisions under which sections?
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Correct Answer: C. Sections 4 and 53. Sections 4 and 53 of the BR Act give the Central Government powers concerning the suspension of bank operations or granting exemptions from the Act’s provisions.
Question 121: The Central Government is responsible for notifying what aspect regarding permissible non-banking business for banks under Section 6(1) of the BR Act?
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Correct Answer: B. The types of permissible non-banking business. Under Section 6(1) of the BR Act, the Central Government notifies what constitutes permissible non-banking business for banks.
Question 122: Rule-making powers under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, are held by which entity?
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Correct Answer: C. Central Government. The Central Government holds rule-making powers under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Question 123: Under which sections of the Banking Regulation Act does the Central Government have rule-making powers, including for record preservation?
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Correct Answer: D. Sections 52 and 45Y. Sections 52 and 45Y of the BR Act grant rule-making powers to the Central Government, including provisions for record preservation.
Question 124: Approval for the formation of a bank subsidiary requires the consent of which authority?
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Correct Answer: C. Central Government. Approval from the Central Government is required for the formation of a bank subsidiary.
Question 125: Under which section of the Banking Regulation Act is the Central Government’s approval required for bank subsidiary formation?
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Correct Answer: B. Section 19. Section 19 of the BR Act stipulates that Central Government approval is needed for bank subsidiary formation.
Question 126: The Central Government is involved in the notification process regarding which documents of banks under Section 29 of the BR Act?
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Correct Answer: C. Accounts and balance sheets. Under Section 29 of the BR Act, the Central Government is involved in notifications concerning the accounts and balance sheets of banks.
Question 127: Directives for bank inspections under Section 35 of the BR Act can be issued by which authority?
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Correct Answer: C. Central Government. The Central Government can issue directives for bank inspections under Section 35 of the BR Act.
Question 128: Which entity holds powers to acquire bank undertakings under Section 36AE of the Banking Regulation Act?
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Correct Answer: C. Central Government. The Central Government has the powers to acquire bank undertakings under Section 36AE of the BR Act.
Question 129: Under which section of the Banking Regulation Act does the Central Government have powers to acquire bank undertakings?
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Correct Answer: D. Section 36AE. Section 36AE of the BR Act grants the Central Government powers for the acquisition of bank undertakings.
Question 130: The appointment of court liquidators is among the powers held by which entity under Section 38A of the BR Act?
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Correct Answer: C. Central Government. The Central Government holds the power for the appointment of court liquidators under Section 38A of the BR Act.
Question 131: How is a cooperative bank primarily defined in the context of its structure?
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Correct Answer: C. A cooperative society engaged in banking. A cooperative bank is defined as a cooperative society that undertakes banking business.
Question 132: Which of the following is a recognised type of cooperative bank?
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Correct Answer: B. Primary Cooperative Bank. Primary Cooperative Bank is listed as a type of cooperative bank.
Question 133: Besides Primary Cooperative Banks, what are other types of cooperative banks mentioned?
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Correct Answer: B. District Central Cooperative Bank and State Cooperative Bank. District Central Cooperative Bank and State Cooperative Bank are identified as types of cooperative banks along with Primary Cooperative Bank.
Question 134: Under which legislation is a cooperative bank operating within a single state typically registered?
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Correct Answer: C. The respective State Cooperative Societies Act. Cooperative banks operating in a single state are usually registered under the Cooperative Societies Act of that particular state.
Question 135: If a cooperative bank operates in multiple states, under which Act is it registered?
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Correct Answer: C. The Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002. Cooperative banks functioning across multiple states are registered under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002.
Question 136: The regulatory framework for cooperative banks involves a system of control by more than one authority. What is this system known as?
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Correct Answer: C. Dual Control. The system involving control by both the State Government and the Reserve Bank of India over cooperative banks is known as Dual Control.
Question 137: In the dual control system for cooperative banks, which entity is responsible for their formation and management as cooperative societies?
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Correct Answer: C. State Government. State Governments are responsible for the formation and management aspects of cooperative societies, including those engaged in banking.
Question 138: The Registrar of Cooperative Societies, functioning under the State Government, holds extensive powers over cooperative societies from which stages?
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Correct Answer: C. Registration to winding up. The Registrar of Cooperative Societies exercises extensive powers from the registration stage through to the winding up of cooperative societies.
Question 139: Which entity exercises control over the licensing and regulation of the banking activities of cooperative banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Reserve Bank of India. The Reserve Bank of India is responsible for the licensing and regulation of the banking activities performed by cooperative banks.
Question 140: The Reserve Bank of India’s control over the banking activities of cooperative banks was introduced through which legislation and in which year?
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Correct Answer: B. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, via Section 56, in 1965. The RBI’s control over the banking activities of cooperative banks was introduced through Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, in the year 1965.
Question 141: What was a significant impact of the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, on cooperative banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Enhanced RBI’s powers to restructure them. The 2020 amendment significantly increased the Reserve Bank of India’s powers related to the restructuring of cooperative banks.
Question 142: The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, granted the RBI more control over which aspect of cooperative bank operations?
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Correct Answer: B. Their management, including supersession of the Board of Directors. The 2020 amendment provided the RBI with greater control over the management of cooperative banks, including the power of supersession of the Board of Directors.
Question 143: The power granted to the RBI to supersede the Board of Directors of a cooperative bank is associated with which section introduced by the 2020 amendment?
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Correct Answer: C. Section 36AAA. The power for the RBI to supersede the Board of Directors of a cooperative bank is associated with Section 36AAA.
Question 144: A key objective of the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, concerning cooperative banks was to enable the RBI to frame revival plans and protect whose interests?
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Correct Answer: C. Depositors’ interests. The 2020 amendment aimed to enable the RBI to frame revival plans and safeguard the interests of depositors in cooperative banks.
Question 145: Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, outlines which specific aspect concerning cooperative banks?
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Correct Answer: B. The application of the Act to cooperative banks with modifications. Section 56 of the Banking Regulation Act details how the Act applies to cooperative banks, including specific modifications.
Question 146: How are cooperative banks permitted to raise capital according to the regulatory framework?
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Correct Answer: C. Through public/private issues, preferential shares, debentures, etc. Cooperative banks are allowed to raise capital through various means such as public or private issues, preferential shares, and debentures.
Question 147: The Reserve Bank of India has the authority to order the winding up of cooperative banks that are registered under which specific Act?
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Correct Answer: C. The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) Act. The RBI can order the winding up of cooperative banks that are registered under the DICGC Act.
Question 148: The RBI’s power to order the winding up of cooperative banks registered under the DICGC Act is specified in which section of the DICGC Act?
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Correct Answer: B. Section 13D. Section 13D of the DICGC Act specifies the RBI’s power to order the winding up of cooperative banks registered under that Act.
Question 149: Besides the RBI and State Governments, which other regulatory authority governs company matters for cooperative banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Companies Act. The Companies Act governs company-related matters for cooperative banks.
Question 150: Employment terms and conditions within cooperative banks are regulated by which set of laws?
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Correct Answer: B. Labour Laws. Labour Laws are applicable for regulating the employment terms and conditions within cooperative banks.
Question 151: Which regulatory authority is responsible for regulating dealings in securities, which can impact cooperative banks involved in such activities?
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Correct Answer: C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). SEBI regulates dealings in securities, which is relevant for cooperative banks involved in security market activities.
Question 152: Insurance business conducted by any entity, including potentially a cooperative bank, is regulated by which authority?
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Correct Answer: D. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI). IRDAI is the regulatory authority for insurance business.
Question 153: Activities related to mutual funds and merchant banking, if undertaken by cooperative banks, are regulated by which authorities?
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Correct Answer: C. RBI and SEBI. Mutual fund and merchant banking activities are regulated by both the RBI and SEBI.
Question 154: Under the dual control system, the State Government’s authority over cooperative banks is primarily derived from which legislation?
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Correct Answer: C. State Cooperative Societies Acts or Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act. The State Government’s control stems from the respective Cooperative Societies Acts under which the banks are registered.
Question 155: The Reserve Bank of India’s regulatory authority over the banking operations of cooperative banks is primarily derived from which legislation?
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Correct Answer: B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The RBI’s authority over the banking aspects of cooperative banks comes from the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.