CAIIB ABM Module D UNIT 29 MCQ – Framework for Identification of Compliance Issues and Compliance Risks

CAIIB ABM Module D UNIT 29 MCQ – Framework for Identification of Compliance Issues and Compliance Risks

Question 1: What is a primary function of a robust audit and inspection department in banks, as per the objectives of a framework?

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Correct Answer: C. To oversee compliance with regulations and ensure timely reporting. The objectives of the framework highlight the need for a robust audit and inspection department to oversee compliance with regulations and ensure timely reporting.

Question 2: What major factor is identified as causing rapid change and massive transformation in the banking landscape of India?

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Correct Answer: B. The evolution of technology. With the evolution of technology, the banking industry has undergone a massive transformation.

Question 3: Financial technology (FinTech) is described in the context of the financial sector as having what potential future impact?

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Correct Answer: C. It is expected to be a disruptive force that reshapes the sector, business models, and banking structures.

Question 4: For any banking and financial system, what is highlighted as a very important aspect for achieving sustainable growth and becoming a success story?

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Correct Answer: B. Compliance.

Question 5: How is compliance defined in the context discussed?

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Correct Answer: C. The act of following laws, rules, regulations, and various codes of conduct. Compliance is defined as the act of following laws, rules, regulations, and various codes of conduct, including voluntary ones.

Question 6: Apart from external requirements like laws and regulations, what is equally important for compliance within an organisation?

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Correct Answer: B. Adhering to the organisation’s own internal rules, policies, procedures, and ethical practices.

Question 7: In the context of compliance, what is meant by a “compliance issue”?

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Correct Answer: B. A single event where an Accountable Employee violates one or more required processes or procedures under the Rules. A compliance issue means a single event during which any Accountable Employee is in violation of one or more processes or procedures required under the Rules.

Question 8: What is a significant challenge for organisations in the present financial world, which is becoming more regulated?

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Correct Answer: B. Keeping up with the pace of alterations and complying with evolving regulations. As the financial world gets more regulated, organisations face a greater burden and stress to keep up with the pace of alterations and to comply with the evolving regulations.

Question 9: Which of the following is listed as one of the important challenges for the BFSI sector in recent times?

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Correct Answer: B. Geopolitical Trends towards Nationalism. Geopolitical Trends towards Nationalism is listed as one of the important challenges for the BFSI sector.

Question 10: Due to fast-moving changes in the BFSI sector, such as in Payment & Settlement systems and banking products, what is the felt need?

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Correct Answer: C. To improvise Compliance policies and implementation. With fast moving changes in the BFSI sector, there is a felt need to improvise the Compliance policies and implementation.

Question 11: The re-emergence of protectionism, nationalism, and sovereign rights has created uncertainty in which specific area for financial organisations?

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Correct Answer: C. Policy and regulation. The re-emergence of protectionism, nationalism and sovereign rights created an uncertainty in the policy and regulation side as well.

Question 12: Changes in the geopolitical area directly or indirectly affect regulations like Data Protection and KYC. Therefore, financial organisations must remain aware of potential disruptions in processes, even if they are addressing diverse policies and regulations. This indicates the need for vigilance regarding which external factor?

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Correct Answer: B. Global political shifts. Changes in the geopolitical area affect regulations and financial organisations must remain aware of potential disruptions, directly linking global political shifts to regulatory compliance.

Question 13: In countries experiencing uncertainty, what type of risk may potentially thrive, facilitated by innovative technologies?

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Correct Answer: B. Financial crime. In the countries of uncertainty, financial crime may thrive due to the facilities provided by the innovative technologies.

Question 14: Financial organisations are advised to understand and embrace the divergent nature of regulations and adapt it into their strategies. What term is used to describe this approach?

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Correct Answer: C. Merge the diverge. Financial organisations are advised to understand and embrace the divergent nature of regulations, and the term “merge the diverge” must be learned and adapted into their strategies.

Question 15: Financial services providers recognise data as something that needs to be protected with governance and control. Where is this protection required?

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Correct Answer: C. Both within their organisation and through third-party organisations. Financial services providers acknowledge data as something to be protected with governance and control within their organisation and through third-party organisations.

Question 16: In the context of business transformation for the sake of regulatory compliance, what key concept relates to the ability of financial institutions to adapt to changing environments?

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Correct Answer: C. Operational resilience. The ability of the financial institutions to adapt to changing environments is one of the key concepts for the process of business transformation for the sake of regulatory compliance, referred to as operational resilience.

Question 17: Regulators expect Banks & FIs to have a broad view of operational resilience by controlling operational risks and managing what other aspect?

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Correct Answer: C. Disruptions. Regulators expect Banks & Fls to have a highly broad view of operational resilience by both controlling the operational risks and managing the disruptions.

Question 18: An integrated approach for operational resilience should include which of the following components?

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Correct Answer: C. Continuity planning, operational risk, and concentration risk analysis. Institutions need to operate an integrated approach including continuity planning, operational risk, and concentration risk analysis for operational resilience.

Question 19: Financial institutions should learn from previous credit cycles to prevent potential risks related to which area?

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Correct Answer: C. Credit cycles. Financial institutions should learn from previous credit cycles and apply the learnings into their operations to prevent the potential risks which are related to Credit Cycles.

Question 20: Addressing challenges in the banking sector requires extensive use of the latest technological tools like AI and Data Analytics. What is required on the other hand?

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Correct Answer: C. An upgrade in Skills set of employees at all levels. These challenges would require extensive use of latest technological tools and on the other hand upgrade in Skills set of employees at all levels.

Question 21: As defined by the Basel Committee on Compliance Function, what type of risk encompasses the possibility of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss, or damage to reputation for a bank failing to comply with applicable standards?

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Correct Answer: D. Compliance Risk. The definition provided is that of Compliance Risk, which includes the risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss, or loss to reputation due to failure to comply with applicable standards.

Question 22: Which of the following is listed as a common compliance risk?

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Correct Answer: B. Workplace Health and Safety. Workplace Health and Safety is listed as one of the common compliance risks.

Question 23: When assessing the level of Compliance Risk in different business lines, products, and processes, which factor is taken into account?

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Correct Answer: C. Regulatory Focus. Regulatory Focus is one of the bases for identifying the level of Compliance Risk in each business line, products and processes.

Question 24: What role does the ‘New product approval process’ and the Compliance department play when a bank introduces new products and processes?

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Correct Answer: C. To identify Compliance Risk and put in place appropriate risk mitigants. The Compliance department through the New product approval process shall ensure that Compliance Risk in all new products and processes introduced get identified and appropriate risk mitigants are put in place.

Question 25: What is expected regarding staff accountability in relation to compliance failures?

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Correct Answer: B. Staff accountability shall be examined for all compliance failures.

Question 26: As a key element of a bank’s Corporate Governance Structure, the Compliance function is required to be independent and have its responsibilities clearly defined. What is also required regarding its activities?

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Correct Answer: B. Its activities shall be subject to periodic and independent review by the internal audit function. Its activities shall be subject to periodic and independent review by the internal audit function.

Question 27: Within the bank, the Compliance function should be regarded as what type of activity?

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Correct Answer: C. A Core Risk management activity. Compliance function shall be regarded as a Core Risk management activity within the bank and shall not be outsourced.

Question 28: How is the present day approach to compliance management described?

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Correct Answer: C. Risk based and due diligence is essential. The present day approach is a risk based and due diligence is also essential.

Question 29: Due diligence in the context of meeting obligations means an organisation is able to demonstrate what?

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Correct Answer: B. That it has been duly diligent through developing, implementing and maintaining a management system. Due diligence is when an organisation is able to demonstrate that it had been duly diligent in meeting its obligations through developing, implementing and maintaining a management system.

Question 30: Which of the following points is critical to proving due diligence?

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Correct Answer: C. Systems that are effective and not merely “paper”. Systems must be “effective” and not “paper”, “legalistic” systems is a critical point to proving due diligence.

Question 31: Which of the following is considered an essential ingredient of due diligence?

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Correct Answer: C. Real commitment to compliance. Real commitment to compliance is listed as one of the essential ingredients of due diligence.

Question 32: Who leads and co-ordinates investigations into alleged unsatisfactory conduct or misconduct of Bank employees or consultants, under the guidance of the CMD?

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Correct Answer: B. The Head of the Internal audit & Compliance department. Under the guidance of the CMD the Head of the Internal audit & Compliance department shall lead and co-ordinate investigations into alleged unsatisfactory conduct or misconduct of Bank employees or consultants.

Question 33: The complete risk management function involves pro-active activities. Which of the following is one such activity?

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Correct Answer: B. Identifying, documenting and assessing the compliance risks associated with the Bank’s business activities. On a pro-active basis, to identify, document and assess the compliance risks associated with the Bank’s business activities is part of the complete risk management function.

Question 34: What is Liquidity risk for a financial institution?

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Correct Answer: B. The risk that it may run short of funds, potentially leading to high interest rates to bridge the gap. Liquidity risk is defined as the risk that a financial institution may run short of funds, owing to a decline in its creditworthiness or an extreme gap between its maturities in inflow and outflow of funds, and may therefore have to pay prohibitively high interest rates to bridge the gap.

Question 35: How do banks manage liquidity risk?

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Correct Answer: C. By periodically examining the structure of fund sources and uses and implementing measures needed to improve this structure. To manage liquidity risk, the Bank first periodically examines the structure of fund sources and uses and implements measures needed to improve this structure.

Question 36: What type of risk is inherent in the handling of customer transactions, where errors, unethical conduct, and other circumstances can lead to losses?

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Correct Answer: C. Operations risk. Operations risk is inherent in the handling of customer transactions, and errors, unethical conduct, and certain other circumstances that may lead to losses.

Question 37: Which of the following is a typical example of operations risk mentioned?

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Correct Answer: C. Customer complaints concerning transactions. Typical examples are disparities between actual cash and cash balances and customer complaints concerning transactions.

Question 38: To lessen and minimise operations risk, especially as banking activities become more diverse, what is essential?

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Correct Answer: C. Proper management of these activities. As banking activities become more diverse, proper management of these activities to lessen and minimise operations risk is essential.

Question 39: What is Systems risk?

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Correct Answer: B. Risk inherent in computer systems, potentially causing losses or damages due to malfunctions or unethical conduct. Systems risk is inherent in computer systems, and losses as well as damages may be incurred owing to malfunctions and unethical conduct.

Question 40: For financial institutions, which are highly dependent on computer systems, Systems risk may have an impact on whom?

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Correct Answer: C. Society at large. For financial institutions, which are highly dependent on these systems, there is a possibility that systems risk may have an impact on society at large.

Question 41: How does the bank described manage Systems risk?

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Correct Answer: B. By supervising and controlling it as part of a unified, bank wide management system. The bank does not regard the management of systems risk as simply a systemic or technological issue but, as one form of management risk, is working to supervise and control it as part of a unified, bank wide management system.

Question 42: What is the process of assessing the level of compliance of regulatory directives impacting the banks and the major compliance risks faced by the bank?

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Correct Answer: C. Compliance Risk Assessment. Compliance Risk Assessment is the process of assessing the level of compliance of regulatory directives impacting the banks and the major compliance risks faced by the bank.

Question 43: Which of the following is an area related to gaining a better understanding of Compliance Risk Assessment?

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Correct Answer: B. Implementation of regulatory guidelines. Implementation of regulatory guidelines is identified as an area related to understanding Compliance Risk Assessment.

Question 44: For overseas bank establishments, which parameter may be considered when assessing compliance risk?

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Correct Answer: B. AML-CFT compliance. For overseas establishments, AML-CFT compliance may be taken as a parameter for assessment.

Question 45: On a scale of 1-10 for Compliance Risk Score, what does a score between 3.1 and 5 indicate regarding the Compliance Risk Level?

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Correct Answer: C. Meets requirement. A Compliance Risk Score between 3.1 and 5 indicates the Compliance Risk Level is “Meets requirement”.

Question 46: Based on the results of the Compliance Risk assessment, what action plan may be prepared?

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Correct Answer: C. A plan to mitigate the risks with actions. Based on the results of the Compliance Risk assessment, a plan may be prepared to mitigate the risks with actions.

Question 47: How often should the assessment of the compliance risk activity-wise be conducted as per the plan based on Compliance Risk assessment results?

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Correct Answer: C. At least once a year. The plan includes action to conduct assessment of the compliance risk activity-wise at least once a year.

Question 48: What is required concerning a quality assurance and improvement program for the compliance function?

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Correct Answer: B. The bank shall develop and maintain one covering all aspects of the compliance function. The bank shall also develop and maintain a quality assurance and improvement program covering all aspects of the compliance function.

Question 49: How frequently must the quality assurance and improvement program for the compliance function be subjected to independent external review?

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Correct Answer: D. Periodically (at least once in three years). The quality assurance and improvement program shall be subject to independent external review periodically (at least once in three years).

Question 50: Who shares the responsibility for compliance in a bank?

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Correct Answer: C. The business units and the compliance function. Compliance is a shared responsibility of the business units and the compliance function.

Question 51: Whose responsibility is it to adhere to applicable statutory provisions and regulations within the bank?

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Correct Answer: B. Each staff member of the bank. Adherence to applicable statutory provisions and regulations needs to be the responsibility of each staff member of the bank.

Question 52: What is considered key to a successful compliance policy?

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Correct Answer: B. An effective audit programme. An effective audit programme is the key to a successful compliance policy.

Question 53: Which department in banks may evaluate the compliance risk in each business line at periodical intervals and report the results to the Board/Management Committee?

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Correct Answer: C. Compliance units. Compliance units in banks may evaluate the compliance risk in each business line at periodical intervals and put up the results to the Board/Management Committee.

Question 54: What is one of the key components of an effective audit programme?

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Correct Answer: B. Ensuring adequate transaction testing. Ensure adequate transaction testing is listed as one of the key components of an effective audit programme.

Question 55: To have an efficient and effective compliance policy, it is necessary to consider factors that have changed since the prior audit. Which of the following is an example of such a changed factor?

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Correct Answer: B. New regulations introduced since the prior audit. New regulations introduced since the prior audit is listed as a factor that should be considered.

Question 56: The success of a compliance policy requires a system of independent testing. What activities are tested by this system?

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Correct Answer: C. The existing policies, procedures, and activities. The success of a compliance policy needs a system of independent testing of the existing policies/procedures/activities.

Question 57: Which of the following is listed as an area or activity to be tested as part of independent compliance testing?

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Correct Answer: B. Adequacy of Customer Identification Program (CIP). Adequacy of Customer Identification Program (CIP) is listed as one of the areas/activities to be tested.

Question 58: Breaches or non-compliances, when observed, should be reported in a structured format. Where should this report be primarily sent?

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Correct Answer: B. To the Compliance department at Central office. Wherever breaches/non-compliances are observed, the same should be sent Compliance department at Central office.

Question 59: When selecting the sample size for independent compliance testing on a random basis, the level of compliance risk is assessed through certain parameters. Which of the following is one such parameter?

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Correct Answer: B. Whether any major Breaches are reported in the past. Whether any major Breaches are reported in the past is a parameter influencing sample size selection.

Question 60: In the framework for Test Checking on Random Basis for compliance, what specific compliance area at the branch level is relevant for sample selection?

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Correct Answer: B. KYC AML norms/compliance. KYC AML norms/compliance at branch level is relevant for sample selection for testing.

Question 61: Which activity typically involves a visit to a specific location and is mandated as part of fulfilling a compliance requirement?

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Correct Answer: B. Inspection. An inspection is described as involving a site visit as part of a compliance obligation.

Question 62: What is the primary purpose of an audit in the context of compliance obligations within an organisation?

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Correct Answer: C. To check that compliance requirements have been fulfilled, including whether necessary inspections were conducted. An audit is defined as the process of checking that compliance obligations have been met, including completed inspections.

Question 63: What is a key distinction between inspections and audits regarding the problems they focus on?

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Correct Answer: B. Inspections deal with immediate problems or potential accidents, while audits cover the underlying reasons for these problems. Inspections focus on things causing immediate issues, whereas audits cover the root causes.

Question 64: Which of the following is listed as a type of audit?

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Correct Answer: B. Risk Based Internal Audit. Risk Based Internal Audit is mentioned as one of the types of audits.

Question 65: When internal auditors identify breaches or non-compliances during an inspection, to whom should they report these, also providing a copy to the Risk Management Department?

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Correct Answer: B. Chief Compliance Officer at Head office. Internal auditors should report breaches and non-compliances to the Chief Compliance Officer at Head office, with a copy to the Risk management department.

Question 66: Which body is primarily responsible for providing direction and overseeing the complete audit function within a bank?

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Correct Answer: C. The Audit Committee. The role of the audit committee includes providing direction and overseeing the operations of the total audit function.

Question 67: A bank’s Audit Committee is responsible for following up on observations from the inspection conducted by which external regulatory body?

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Correct Answer: B. Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The Audit Committee should follow up on the observations of the inspection by the Reserve Bank of India.

Question 68: What is one significant responsibility of the Audit Committee concerning the performance of inspecting/auditing officials?

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Correct Answer: C. Fixing accountability for failing to detect serious irregularities. Fixing accountability of inspecting/auditing officials for failure to detect serious irregularities is a role of the audit committee.

Question 69: What aspects of a bank’s operations does the Audit Committee periodically review to enhance transparency in the bank’s financial reporting?

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Correct Answer: C. Accounting policies and internal control systems. Periodical review of the accounting policies and internal control systems is done by the audit committee to ensure greater transparency in accounts.

Question 70: How do lenders primarily manage or control risk at the initial stage when a loan proposal is sanctioned or underwritten?

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Correct Answer: B. By developing and using strong sanction and underwriting policies and procedures. Lenders control risk on the front end by developing and using strong Loan sanction/underwriting policies and procedures.

Question 71: What is considered a vital component of an effective system used by lenders to manage risk associated with their portfolio of loans after they have been originated?

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Correct Answer: B. Loan review. One critical element of a strong portfolio management system is the loan review.

Question 72: What is the main objective of implementing a loan review mechanism within a bank?

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Correct Answer: B. To identify the types and levels of credit risk present in the loan portfolio. A loan review mechanism can help banks identify the types and levels of credit risk in their portfolio.

Question 73: Which of the following is an assessment that a loan review specifically includes regarding individual loans?

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Correct Answer: B. Assessment of individual loans, including repayment risks. A loan review specifically includes the assessment of individual loans, including repayment risks.

Question 74: For banks that have a system to rate the risk associated with their loans, what specific aspect does a loan review mechanism evaluate?

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Correct Answer: C. The accuracy and appropriateness of the risk grades assigned to loans. The loan review mechanism evaluates risk grades and their accuracy for banks that risk-rate their loans.

Question 75: What kind of data and recommendations does a thorough and correctly completed loan review provide to the management and the Board of Directors?

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Correct Answer: B. Timely and objective data on loan portfolio quality and recommendations for addressing weaknesses. A thorough and correctly completed loan review provides objective and timely data on loan portfolio quality and recommendations for addressing weaknesses.

Question 76: Which of the following is explicitly stated as something a loan review is NOT, because it involves assessing concentrations like geographic or borrower risks?

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Correct Answer: B. A portfolio review. A loan review is not a portfolio review, which assesses concentrations like geographic or borrower risks.

Question 77: When a loan review assesses the quality of loans, it does so at a particular moment in time. What is this specific point in time referred to as?

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Correct Answer: B. The focal date. A loan review assesses loan quality at a specific point in time, which is called the focal date.

Question 78: In a model loan review mechanism checklist, which of the following is included as part of ‘Credit Initiation’?

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Correct Answer: B. Analysis of the financial statements of the initial underwriting. Review of initial underwriting including analysis of financial statements is part of Credit Initiation in a loan review checklist.

Question 79: Evaluating whether repayment terms align with the borrower’s capacity to repay and industry best practices is a component found in which section of a loan review checklist?

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Correct Answer: C. Loan Structuring. Evaluation of repayment terms against the borrower’s ability to repay and industry best practices is part of Loan Structuring.

Question 80: Verification of all relevant initial and ongoing documentation is a key activity listed under which area of a loan review checklist?

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Correct Answer: C. Credit/Collateral File Documentation. Verification of all relevant initial and ongoing documentation is part of Credit/Collateral File Documentation.

Question 81: Evaluating the management of loans that are experiencing difficulties, including how they are reported to senior management, is covered in which part of a loan review checklist?

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Correct Answer: B. Problem Loan Management. Evaluation of problem loan management including reporting to senior management is covered in Problem Loan Management.

Question 82: After conducting a loan review, what are the loan review officials required to submit to the competent authority?

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Correct Answer: B. A report summarising findings, conclusions, and recommendations. Loan review officials are required to submit a report summarising findings, conclusions and recommendations.

Question 83: According to guidelines mentioned, which type of risk is considered the most crucial aspect of managing a bank’s funds?

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Correct Answer: C. Credit risk. Credit risk is advised as the most important aspect of bank funds management.

Question 84: What process is considered the essence of making necessary adjustments or corrections during the credit sanction process?

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Correct Answer: B. Credit audit. Credit audit is the essence of a mid-course correction in the sanction process.

Question 85: What does a credit audit primarily examine in relation to the sanctioning and subsequent handling of loans?

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Correct Answer: B. Compliance with established sanction and post-sanction processes and procedures. Credit audit examines compliance with extant sanction and post-sanction processes/procedures.

Question 86: Which of the following is listed as an objective of conducting a credit audit?

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Correct Answer: B. Improving the quality of the credit portfolio. Improvement in the quality of credit portfolio is listed as an objective of Credit Audit.

Question 87: Identifying potential problems at an early stage and proposing corrective actions are objectives of which specific audit process related to credit?

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Correct Answer: D. Credit Audit. Picking up early warning signals and suggesting remedial measures are objectives of Credit Audit.

Question 88: To which department might the function of processing Credit Audit Reports be assigned?

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Correct Answer: C. A specific department or the Inspection and Audit department. The credit audit/loan review mechanism may be assigned to a specific department or the Inspection and audit department.

Question 89: Which department is responsible for analysing Credit audit findings and providing advice to the relevant departments or functionaries?

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Correct Answer: B. The Credit Audit Department. Analysing Credit audit findings and advising concerned departments/functionaries is a function of the Credit Audit Department.

Question 90: Maintaining a record or list of advances that have been subjected to Credit audit is a function performed by which department?

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Correct Answer: B. The Credit Audit Department. Maintaining database of advances subjected to Credit audit is a function of the Credit Audit Department.

Question 91: Beyond looking at individual accounts, how has the necessary focus of the scope of credit audit broadened?

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Correct Answer: C. To look at the overall portfolio and the credit process being followed. The focus of credit audit needs to be broadened from the account level to look at the overall portfolio and the credit process.

Question 92: Which scope of credit audit involves examining the quality of the Credit and Investment portfolio?

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Correct Answer: B. Portfolio Review. Portfolio Review is a scope of credit audit that examines the quality of Credit & Investment portfolio.

Question 93: Reviewing the process by which loans are sanctioned and the status of procedures followed after sanction falls under which scope of credit audit?

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Correct Answer: C. Loan Review. Review of the sanction process and status of post sanction processes/procedures is covered under Loan Review scope of credit audit.

Question 94: According to the scope of loan review in credit audit, which accounts should be included for review, even if their limits are below a cut-off, if they are linked to accounts above the cut-off?

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Correct Answer: C. Accounts of sister concerns/group/associate concerns. Accounts of sister concerns/group/associate concerns of accounts above the cut-off should be reviewed.

Question 95: Verifying compliance with the bank’s established policies and regulatory requirements related to the sanction of loans is considered an action point for review in which process?

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Correct Answer: C. Credit audit. Verify compliance of bank’s laid down policies and regulatory compliance with regard to sanction is an action point for review in credit audit.

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