CAIIB ABM Module B UNIT 12 MCQ – Human Implications of Organisations.
Question 1: What is considered one of the most crucial aspects of human resource management regarding individuals?
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Correct Answer: B. Understanding and appreciating individual differences and their impact on behaviour. Effective human resource management requires recognising that each person is unique in behaviour and psychological traits, which influences their actions and interactions in the workplace.
Question 2: According to the general understanding, human behaviour is primarily a combination of which two types of behaviour?
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Correct Answer: C. Originating and responding behaviour. Human behaviour is seen as a complex mix involving actions initiated by the individual (originating) and reactions to external stimuli or situations (responding).
Question 3: Which factors are grouped under ‘Environmental Factors’ influencing individual behaviour?
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Correct Answer: B. Economic, Social, Political. Environmental factors are external influences on behaviour, including the economic climate, social norms and cultural values, and the political environment.
Question 4: Which category includes factors like Personality, Perception, Attitudes, Values, and Learning that influence individual behaviour?
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Correct Answer: D. Psychological Factors. These factors relate to the internal mental and emotional states and processes of an individual that shape their behaviour.
Question 5: According to psychologist Kurt Lewin, what is behaviour a function of?
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Correct Answer: C. The person and the environment. Lewin proposed that behaviour arises from the interaction between an individual’s personal characteristics and the environmental situation they are in.
Question 6: Which approach to understanding human behaviour suggests that people are primarily motivated by money?
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Correct Answer: C. Economic man and rational man approach. This early managerial perspective viewed employees as logical beings chiefly driven by financial incentives.
Question 7: The Hawthorne studies highlighted the importance of which factor in addition to economic motives for explaining human behaviour at work?
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Correct Answer: C. Social interactions and treatment at the workplace. These studies revealed that social needs, how employees are treated, and recognition significantly influence their attitude and performance, leading to the ‘social man’ concept.
Question 8: What is the current thinking regarding understanding human behaviour in organisations, moving beyond the ‘social man’ approach?
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Correct Answer: C. Man is a complex being with differing personalities. Contemporary views acknowledge that individuals are multifaceted, with diverse needs including creativity and growth, and that personalities vary significantly.
Question 9: Why is understanding employee personality considered important for managers?
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Correct Answer: B. To predict behaviour like absenteeism and turnover and take preventive measures. Understanding personality helps managers anticipate employee actions, adjust their own behaviour, foster cohesiveness, and address potential issues proactively.
Question 10: What does synergy in a team context primarily help achieve?
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Correct Answer: C. Group performance and output beyond individual contributions. Synergy results from effective teamwork, cooperation, and collaboration, leveraging individual differences to achieve collective results greater than the sum of individual efforts.
Question 11: Which of the following is listed as a basic assumption about human behaviour at work, centred around people?
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Correct Answer: B. An individual has dignity. This assumption emphasizes the inherent worth and ethical treatment deserved by every employee within an organisation.
Question 12: The statement “Every person is, in certain respects, like all other persons, like some other persons, and like no other person” refers to what concept?
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Correct Answer: C. Individual differences and commonalities. This highlights that while individuals share some universal human characteristics and group traits, each person also possesses unique qualities.
Question 13: How did Salvotore Maddi define personality?
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Correct Answer: B. A stable set of characteristics and tendencies determining commonalities and differences in psychological behaviour over time. Maddi’s definition emphasizes the relative stability of personality traits and tendencies that shape thoughts, feelings, and actions, while acknowledging gradual change.
Question 14: According to Raymond Cattell’s theory, what helps understand personality and predict behaviour?
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Correct Answer: B. A pattern of traits. Cattell viewed personality as composed of underlying permanent traits that form the structure of an individual’s personality and influence their behaviour.
Question 15: Eysenck’s theory of personality primarily focused on which aspect, believed to be largely controlled by genetic influences?
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Correct Answer: C. Temperaments. Eysenck concentrated on temperaments, using factor analysis to identify key dimensions like extraversion and neuroticism, which he linked to genetic factors.
Question 16: Which personality type is generally described as restless, impatient, desiring quick achievement, and perfectionist?
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Correct Answer: C. Type A personality. This behaviour profile is characterised by a sense of time urgency, competitiveness, and a drive for rapid accomplishment.
Question 17: Which behaviour is characteristic of a Type ‘B’ personality?
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Correct Answer: C. Being easy-going and relaxed about time pressure. Type B individuals are typically less competitive, more patient, and have a more balanced approach to life and work compared to Type A individuals.
Question 18: According to Friedman, Meyer, and Roseman, which action is often displayed by a Type ‘A’ personality?
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Correct Answer: C. Displaying nervous gestures like a clenched fist. This is one of the observable characteristics associated with the restlessness and underlying tension often found in Type A behaviour.
Question 19: In Erikson’s model, which conflict characterises the first stage of development, relating to dependence on others for needs?
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Correct Answer: C. Trust vs. Mistrust. This initial stage focuses on developing a sense of trust when caregivers reliably meet the infant’s needs, or mistrust if needs are inconsistently met. This dynamic can reappear in the workplace when relying on others for guidance.
Question 20: Which stage in Erikson’s model involves the need to function independently and the feelings associated with success or failure in doing so?
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Correct Answer: B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt. This stage centers on developing a sense of independence and self-control. Success leads to autonomy, while failure can result in shame and self-doubt, applicable both in childhood and workplace scenarios.
Question 21: Taking initiative and using talents to settle into a job, while potentially feeling guilty if things go wrong, corresponds to which Eriksonian stage?
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Correct Answer: B. Initiative vs. Guilt. This stage involves asserting oneself, taking initiative in activities, and learning purposefulness. Mistakes or criticism during this stage can lead to feelings of guilt.
Question 22: Developing a sense of inferiority due to failure in pursuing goals and managing life relates to which conflict in Erikson’s model?
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Correct Answer: B. Industry vs. Inferiority. This stage focuses on developing competence through mastering tasks and knowledge. Failure to do so can lead to feelings of inadequacy and inferiority compared to peers.
Question 23: Experiencing conflict about becoming an independent and effective adult, potentially leading to confusion about one’s role, occurs during which Eriksonian stage?
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Correct Answer: B. Identity vs. Role Confusion. Adolescence and early adulthood involve exploring different roles and ideologies to form a cohesive sense of self (identity). Difficulty in this process can result in confusion about one’s place and role.
Question 24: The need to develop close relationships with others, potentially leading to feelings of isolation if unsuccessful, is central to which Eriksonian stage?
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Correct Answer: B. Intimacy vs. Isolation. This stage in early adulthood focuses on forming deep, meaningful relationships. Success leads to intimacy, while failure can result in loneliness and isolation.
Question 25: In middle adulthood, the need to contribute to the next generation (e.g., raising children or developing others) versus feeling unproductive relates to which Eriksonian conflict?
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Correct Answer: B. Generativity vs. Stagnation. This stage involves finding purpose through contributing to society, family, or work. Failing to find such purpose can lead to feelings of stagnation and unproductiveness.
Question 26: Which personality type often feels a persistent sense of urgency regarding time?
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Correct Answer: C. Type A personality. A key characteristic of the Type A behaviour pattern is a chronic feeling of time urgency and impatience.
Question 27: How would a Type B individual typically be described?
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Correct Answer: C. Easy-going and relaxed. The Type B personality is generally characterized by a relaxed disposition, patience, and a less competitive nature compared to Type A.
Question 28: What is a common orientation found in individuals with a Type A personality?
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Correct Answer: B. Strong achievement orientation. Type A individuals are often driven by a desire to achieve goals quickly and efficiently, exhibiting a high degree of achievement orientation.
Question 29: Which statement accurately reflects the competitive drive typically seen in a Type B person?
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Correct Answer: C. They generally do not experience a strong competitive drive. Unlike Type A individuals, Type B persons are typically less competitive and more relaxed about outcomes.
Question 30: According to Erikson’s model, how many distinct stages constitute personality development?
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Correct Answer: D. Eight stages. Erikson’s psychosocial theory outlines eight sequential stages of development, each presenting a unique conflict or challenge that shapes personality.
Question 31: In which stage of life, according to Erikson, does the need to develop intimate relationships with others typically emerge?
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Correct Answer: C. Youth (Early Adulthood). Erikson’s stage of Intimacy vs. Isolation, occurring in early adulthood, focuses on the individual’s need to form close, loving relationships.
Question 32: What fundamental concept suggests a shared alignment of goals between individuals within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: C. Mutuality of interest. This concept posits that organisations function effectively when there is a degree of shared or mutual interest among its members, aligning individual and organisational goals.
Question 33: What allows for the possibility of predicting behaviour patterns to some extent?
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Correct Answer: B. The existence of common patterns and variables determining personality. Identifying common personality traits and patterns allows for classifying individuals and predicting their likely behaviour in certain situations.
Question 34: According to the Psycho-analytical Theory, human behaviour and motivation are primarily the outcome of which three psychoanalytic elements?
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Correct Answer: B. Id, Ego, Super Ego. Freud’s Psycho-analytical Theory posits that personality structure and behaviour result from the interplay between the instinctual drives (Id), the reality-oriented conscious self (Ego), and the internalized moral conscience (Super Ego).
Question 35: What does the Trait Theory propose about the basic elements that determine personality and behaviour?
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Correct Answer: C. Traits inherent to a person are the primary determinants of personality. Trait Theory suggests that personality consists of fundamental, relatively stable characteristics or traits, largely inherent, which explain consistent patterns of behaviour.
Question 36: According to Carl Rogers, associated with Self-Concept Theory, what provides the best vantage point for understanding an individual’s behaviour?
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Correct Answer: C. Understanding the individual’s own internal frame of reference and self-image. Self-Concept Theory emphasizes that behaviour is best understood from the individual’s perspective, focusing on their self-perception and how they see themselves in relation to others and the world.
Question 37: What is the fundamental premise of the Social Learning Theory regarding the development of personality?
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Correct Answer: B. Personality development is more a result of social variables and learning than biological factors. This theory asserts that personality is largely acquired or modified through learning processes, influenced by social interactions, observation, reinforcement, and punishment.
Question 38: How does the Social Learning Theory describe the relationship between behaviour and the external environment?
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Correct Answer: C. There is a mutual interaction where behaviour partly creates the environment, and the environment affects behaviour. Social Learning Theory highlights a reciprocal determinism, where an individual’s actions influence their surroundings, and those surroundings, in turn, influence their behaviour.
Question 39: According to the psycho-analytical perspective, what condition is necessary for the development of a ‘normal’ personality?
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Correct Answer: C. A balance in the relationship between the id, the ego, and the super ego. Psycho-analytical theory suggests that a healthy, ‘normal’ personality requires equilibrium among the instinctual demands of the id, the reality-based ego, and the moral constraints of the super ego.
Question 40: Based on the principles of Trait Theory, how would a person who consistently acts in a forceful manner typically be described?
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Correct Answer: C. Aggressive. Trait theory uses stable characteristics (traits) to describe personality. Consistent forceful behaviour aligns with the trait description of being aggressive.
Question 41: Which theory suggests that individuals possess a self-image and typically act in ways that align with this personal perception?
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Correct Answer: C. Self-Concept Theory. A core tenet of Self-Concept Theory, often associated with Carl Rogers, is that individuals have a perception of themselves (self-image) and their behaviour tends to be consistent with that image.
Question 42: Which perspective defines personality as the aggregation of all the knowledge, attitudes, and skills acquired by an individual through their experiences?
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Correct Answer: D. Social Learning Theory. This theory posits that personality is not fixed but is developed and shaped over time as the sum total of everything a person has learned through interaction with their social environment.
Question 43: In Freudian psycho-analytical theory, which component is considered the foundation of the unconscious mind, containing basic instincts and drives?
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Correct Answer: D. The Id. Within Freud’s framework, the Id resides entirely in the unconscious and operates on the pleasure principle, representing primal biological urges and instinctual drives.
Question 44: What biological factor is identified as having an important influence on personality?
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Correct Answer: C. The role of the brain. The brain is mentioned as a significant biological factor influencing personality, with concepts like electrical stimulation and hemispheric specialization being relevant.
Question 45: Besides potentially manipulating personality, what is another suggested application of Electrical Stimulation of the Brain (ESB)?
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Correct Answer: C. Reducing stress and tension, stimulating creative thinking. ESB is noted for its potential use in managing stress and possibly enhancing creativity, based on the idea of stimulating specific brain areas.
Question 46: Which functions are generally associated with the left hemisphere of the brain?
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Correct Answer: B. Speech/Verbal ability, logical/mathematical reasoning, sequential processing. The left hemisphere is typically linked to analytical, verbal, and logical functions, controlling the right side of the body.
Question 47: Which characteristics are typically attributed to the right hemisphere of the brain?
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Correct Answer: C. Spatial/musical abilities, holistic processing, intuitive/creative thought. The right hemisphere is generally associated with more holistic, intuitive, creative, and spatial functions, controlling the left side of the body.
Question 48: What is the fundamental premise of John Holland’s personality-job fit theory?
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Correct Answer: C. Satisfaction depends on the successful match between an individual’s personality type and their occupation. Holland’s theory proposes that job satisfaction and the likelihood of leaving a job are dependent on how well an individual’s personality aligns with their occupational environment.
Question 49: In Holland’s typology, which personality type is described as shy, genuine, persistent, and practical, preferring physical activities?
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Correct Answer: C. Realistic. The Realistic type prefers hands-on work involving tools, machines, or physical skill, and often possesses characteristics like practicality and persistence. Congruent occupations include mechanic and farmer.
Question 50: Which of Holland’s personality types prefers activities involving thinking, organising, and understanding, and is often described as analytical and curious?
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Correct Answer: B. Investigative. This type enjoys exploring ideas, working with data, and solving problems through thinking. Congruent occupations include biologist, economist, and mathematician.
Question 51: According to Holland’s theory, which personality type is characterised by being sociable, friendly, and cooperative, preferring activities that involve helping and developing others?
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Correct Answer: D. Social. The Social type enjoys interacting with people, helping, teaching, and providing service. Congruent occupations include social worker, teacher, and counsellor.
Question 52: What kind of activities are preferred by individuals classified under Holland’s ‘Conventional’ personality type?
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Correct Answer: C. Rule-regulated, orderly, and unambiguous activities. The Conventional type thrives in structured environments, preferring tasks that involve data, records, and established procedures. Congruent occupations include accountant and bank teller.
Question 53: Which Holland personality type is described as imaginative, idealistic, and emotional, preferring ambiguous activities that allow creative expression?
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Correct Answer: D. Artistic. This type prefers self-expression through various forms like art, music, or writing, often in unstructured environments. Congruent occupations include painter, musician, and writer.
Question 54: What belief exists regarding specific functional areas within the human brain?
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Correct Answer: B. The brain contains definite pleasurable and painful areas. It is believed that the human brain has distinct regions associated with experiencing pleasure and pain, which could potentially be stimulated.
Question 55: What potential is suggested regarding the physical manipulation of personality using Electrical Stimulation of the Brain (ESB)?
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Correct Answer: C. It may be possible to physically manipulate personality via ESB. The text suggests that because specific brain areas are linked to pleasure and pain, physical manipulation through ESB might influence personality.
Question 56: Which theorist is credited with developing the personality-job fit theory that matches six personality types with congruent occupations?
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Correct Answer: D. John Holland. John Holland developed the widely recognized personality-job fit theory, proposing six distinct personality types and their suitability for different occupational environments.
Question 57: According to the split-brain psychology concepts presented, which type of behaviour is typically controlled by the right hemisphere?
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Correct Answer: C. Intuitive and creative behaviour. The right hemisphere of the brain is generally associated with functions such as intuition, creativity, spatial awareness, and holistic processing.
Question 58: Which type of behaviour is primarily associated with the control functions of the left hemisphere of the brain?
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Correct Answer: B. Analytical behaviour. The left hemisphere is predominantly linked with analytical thought, logic, language processing, and sequential reasoning.
Question 59: Which specific cognitive function is attributed to the control of the left hemisphere, as contrasted with the right?
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Correct Answer: C. Speech and verbal ability. Language functions, including speech and verbal processing, are typically controlled by the left hemisphere of the brain.
Question 60: Which specific ability is listed as being controlled or processed primarily by the right hemisphere of the brain?
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Correct Answer: C. Facial recognition. Recognizing faces is one of the complex perceptual tasks generally attributed to the processing capabilities of the right hemisphere.
Question 61: According to the split-brain information presented, which side of the body is controlled by the left hemisphere of the brain?
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Correct Answer: B. The right side of the body. Neural pathways cross over, meaning the left hemisphere of the brain controls the motor functions and receives sensory input from the right side of the body.
Question 62: Why have organisations begun to question the effectiveness of traditional Human Resource (HR) systems?
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Correct Answer: B. Because they were largely designed for a more homogeneous workforce. Increasing workforce diversity has led organisations to realise that HR systems based on assumptions of employee similarity may no longer be effective.
Question 63: What term describes the tendency of selection and promotion systems to favour employees who fit the characteristics of the dominant group?
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Correct Answer: C. Homogeneous reproduction. This term refers to the phenomenon where organisational systems, often unintentionally, perpetuate similarity by selecting and promoting individuals who resemble those already in power or successful roles.
Question 64: What potential disadvantage can arise from having too much similarity (homogeneity) in an organisation’s workforce?
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Correct Answer: C. Difficulty in responding to new market conditions or technologies. A workforce lacking diversity may struggle to adapt to significant environmental shifts due to a limited range of perspectives, skills, and ideas.
Question 65: Which traditional HR approach to managing diversity focuses on increasing the representation of individuals from different ethnic and cultural backgrounds?
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Correct Answer: C. Diversity Enlargement. This strategy aims to change the demographic composition of the organisation by hiring more individuals from underrepresented groups.
Question 66: What is the primary goal of the ‘Diversity Sensitivity’ approach to managing diversity?
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Correct Answer: C. To teach employees about cultural differences and promote understanding through training. Diversity sensitivity training aims to reduce stereotypes and improve communication and relationships among employees from diverse backgrounds.
Question 67: What potential problem, known as the ‘critical mass’ issue, can organisations face when trying to increase diversity?
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Correct Answer: B. Difficulty retaining diverse workers due to feelings of isolation or tokenism if their numbers are too small. Achieving a ‘critical mass’ means having enough representation from diverse groups so individuals feel accepted and integrated, rather than isolated tokens.
Question 68: According to research reviewed by Powel (1987), when is gender bias in selection decisions likely to be reduced?
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Correct Answer: C. When evaluators receive more relevant information about the job and the applicant’s past performance. Providing detailed, relevant information helps evaluators make decisions based on qualifications rather than gender stereotypes.
Question 69: What did the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 in India primarily provide for?
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Correct Answer: C. Payment of equal remuneration to men and women employees for similar work and prevention of gender discrimination. This Act mandates equal pay for equal work, irrespective of gender, and seeks to prevent discrimination against women in employment matters.
Question 70: What does the Factories Act, 1948 in India regulate concerning women workers?
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Correct Answer: C. Requires permission for women to work during odd hours or in shift duties under specific conditions. The Act acknowledges the vulnerability of women and includes provisions for their safety and protection, regulating work during non-standard hours.
Question 71: What is the purpose of the ‘PoSH Act’ (The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013) in India?
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Correct Answer: C. To protect women from sexual harassment at their place of work. The PoSH Act provides a legal framework for preventing, prohibiting, and redressing acts of sexual harassment against women in the workplace.
Question 72: Which section was added to the Indian Penal Code through the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, defining sexual harassment as an offence?
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Correct Answer: C. Section 354. This amendment specifically added clauses under Section 354 (like 354A) that define acts constituting sexual harassment and stipulate penalties for such offences.
Question 73: According to the McKinsey and Company Report (2021) mentioned, what trend has been observed regarding women in leadership?
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Correct Answer: B. Women are making important gains in representation, especially in senior leadership. The report highlights progress in women’s representation at higher levels and notes their significant contributions to team support and diversity efforts.
Question 74: What is the Latin origin of the word ‘motivation’?
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Correct Answer: B. Movere (to move). The term motivation is derived from the Latin word ‘movere’, implying a force that causes movement or action.
Question 75: In an organisational context, how is motivation often simply referred to?
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Correct Answer: B. The extent of willingness of an employee to respond to organisational requirements. Motivation in the workplace relates directly to an employee’s readiness and drive to contribute towards organisational goals and tasks.
Question 76: Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs and Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory fall under which main category of motivation theories?
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Correct Answer: C. Content Theories. Content theories focus on identifying the internal factors (like needs) that energize and direct human behaviour. Maslow, Herzberg, Alderfer, and McClelland are key proponents.
Question 77: What was the central belief of F.W. Taylor’s Scientific Management approach regarding worker motivation?
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Correct Answer: C. Workers are primarily motivated by economic considerations and higher wages. Taylor’s rational economic view assumed that financial incentives were the main driver for employees to exert more effort and follow prescribed efficient methods.
Question 78: What is the ‘rabble hypothesis’ associated with Taylor’s Scientific Management?
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Correct Answer: B. The assumption that the primary interest of workers is economic gain. The ‘rabble hypothesis’ refers to Taylor’s simplistic view that money is the predominant motivator for the average worker.
Question 79: What did the Hawthorne Studies, conducted by Elton Mayo and his team, reveal as an important factor in worker motivation besides technological methods or pay?
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Correct Answer: B. The importance of human affairs and interpersonal relations at work. The Hawthorne studies highlighted that social factors, group dynamics, and how employees felt treated significantly impacted their motivation and productivity.
Question 80: According to the Human Relations Model, how could managers motivate employees?
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Correct Answer: B. By acknowledging their social needs and making them feel useful and important. This model suggested that motivation could be enhanced by attending to employees’ social needs, involving them, and fostering a sense of belonging and importance.
Question 81: What is considered a key limitation or problem with the Human Relations Model of motivation?
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Correct Answer: C. It places undue reliance on social contacts alone as motivators. Critics argue that while social factors are important, the Human Relations Model’s focus on them was excessive and didn’t fully account for other motivators or the intrinsic nature of work itself.
Question 82: What is the meaning of the Latin word ‘movere’ from which the term ‘Motivation’ is derived?
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Correct Answer: C. To move. The term motivation originates from the Latin word ‘movere’, which translates to ‘to move’, indicating the driving force behind actions.
Question 83: To which group does F.W. Taylor’s Scientific Management approach belong in the classification of motivation theories?
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Correct Answer: D. Early Theories / Rational Economic View. Taylor’s Scientific Management is typically categorized as an early or classical approach focused on rational economic motivation, distinct from later Content or Process theories.
Question 84: How is the Human Relations Model generally categorized within the evolution of motivation theories?
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Correct Answer: C. As one of the early theories of Motivation. Emerging after Scientific Management, the Human Relations Model represents an early shift towards considering social factors in motivation.
Question 85: Which researcher is prominently associated with significant contributions to the Human Relations Model of motivation?
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Correct Answer: D. Elton Mayo. Elton Mayo’s work, particularly the Hawthorne Studies, formed the foundation of the Human Relations Model, emphasizing social factors and employee attitudes.
Question 86: Who proposed the theory identifying five basic levels of human needs arranged in a hierarchy?
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Correct Answer: D. Abraham Maslow. Abraham Maslow, a clinical psychologist, introduced the Hierarchy of Needs theory, outlining five fundamental human needs in a specific order of importance.
Question 87: According to Maslow’s hierarchy, which level of needs must typically be reasonably satisfied before an individual’s attention turns significantly to other needs?
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Correct Answer: D. Physiological Needs. Maslow stated that physiological needs (like food, shelter, sleep) are the most basic and must be met to a satisfactory degree for individuals to focus on higher-level needs.
Question 88: In an organisational context, concerns about salary and basic physical working conditions primarily relate to which level of Maslow’s hierarchy?
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Correct Answer: B. Physiological Needs. Salary allows employees to meet basic survival requirements (food, shelter), and safe, comfortable working conditions address fundamental physical well-being, both falling under physiological needs in the workplace.
Question 89: Job security, pension schemes, and safe working environments are managerial practices aimed at satisfying which level of employee needs according to Maslow?
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Correct Answer: B. Safety/Security Needs. These practices address the employee’s need for stability, protection from physical harm, and security regarding future employment and well-being.
Question 90: Arbitrary or unpredictable actions by management, such as favouritism or unclear job prospects, tend to undermine which level of needs in employees?
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Correct Answer: C. Safety/Security Needs. Such actions create uncertainty and anxiety, particularly regarding continued employment and fair treatment, thus failing to meet the need for security.
Question 91: The desire for belonging, peer acceptance, and friendly supervision in the workplace corresponds to which level in Maslow’s hierarchy?
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Correct Answer: C. Social Needs. These needs relate to an individual’s desire for connection, affection, and acceptance within a group or community, including workplace relationships.
Question 92: Encouraging the formation of informal work groups can help satisfy which category of needs identified by Maslow?
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Correct Answer: C. Social Needs. Informal groups provide opportunities for friendship, belonging, and peer acceptance, directly addressing the social needs of employees.
Question 93: Needs for self-respect, recognition from others, and status within the organisation are classified under which level by Maslow?
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Correct Answer: B. Self-Esteem Needs. This level encompasses the need for feeling competent, respected by oneself and others, achieving recognition, and gaining status.
Question 94: Providing challenging work assignments, performance feedback, and involving employees in decision-making are managerial practices that primarily address which level of needs?
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Correct Answer: D. Self-Esteem Needs. These practices contribute to feelings of competence, achievement, recognition, and responsibility, thus fulfilling esteem needs.
Question 95: According to Maslow, what is the highest level of need, representing the desire to maximize one’s potential and achieve everything one is capable of becoming?
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Correct Answer: D. Self-Actualisation Needs. This represents the peak of the hierarchy, focusing on personal growth, fulfillment, and the realisation of one’s full potential.
Question 96: What characteristic often applies to workers operating primarily at the Self-Actualisation level of need?
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Correct Answer: B. They prefer autonomy and less supervision. Individuals seeking self-actualisation are often self-directed and motivated by the intrinsic nature of their work, thus preferring independence.
Question 97: What is a common criticism leveled against Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory?
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Correct Answer: C. The hierarchical progression is rigid and not universally applicable, and concepts like self-actualisation are hard to measure. Critics point out exceptions to the hierarchy and the difficulty in empirically testing abstract concepts like self-actualisation.
Question 98: Despite criticisms, why is Maslow’s theory considered useful for managers?
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Correct Answer: B. It offers a good conceptual scheme for understanding the different needs employees may seek to satisfy at work. The theory provides a valuable framework for managers to think about the diverse motivations of employees and how different needs become prominent.
Question 99: Which researcher developed the Two-Factor Theory, also known as the Motivation-Hygiene Theory?
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Correct Answer: C. Frederick Herzberg. Frederick Herzberg proposed the Two-Factor Theory based on his research into factors causing job satisfaction and dissatisfaction.
Question 100: What methodology did Herzberg primarily use to collect data for his Two-Factor Theory?
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Correct Answer: C. Critical Incident Method (asking about particularly good and bad job experiences). Herzberg asked employees (accountants and engineers) to describe specific situations where they felt exceptionally good or bad about their jobs.
Question 101: What was Herzberg’s key finding regarding the factors causing job satisfaction and dissatisfaction?
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Correct Answer: B. Factors causing satisfaction are different from those causing dissatisfaction. Herzberg concluded that the factors leading to positive feelings (satisfaction) were distinct from those leading to negative feelings (dissatisfaction).
Question 102: According to Herzberg, what is the opposite of Job Satisfaction?
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Correct Answer: C. No Job Satisfaction. Herzberg proposed that satisfaction and dissatisfaction are not opposites on a single continuum. The absence of satisfying factors leads to a state of ‘no satisfaction’, not necessarily dissatisfaction.
Question 103: What is the opposite of Job Dissatisfaction in Herzberg’s model?
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Correct Answer: D. No Job Dissatisfaction. According to Herzberg, removing factors that cause dissatisfaction only leads to a neutral state of ‘no dissatisfaction’, it does not automatically create satisfaction or motivation.
Question 104: In Herzberg’s theory, factors such as Achievement, Recognition, Responsibility, and the Work Itself are classified as what?
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Correct Answer: D. Motivational Factors (Motivators). These factors relate directly to the content of the job and its intrinsic aspects. Their presence leads to satisfaction and motivation.
Question 105: What effect do Motivational Factors have, according to Herzberg?
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Correct Answer: B. Their presence creates motivation and satisfaction, but their absence causes ‘no satisfaction’. Motivators are seen as the primary drivers of job satisfaction and motivation when present.
Question 106: Factors like Company Policy, Supervision, Salary, Working Conditions, and Job Security fall into which category in Herzberg’s theory?
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Correct Answer: D. Hygiene or Maintenance Factors. These factors relate to the context or environment surrounding the job, rather than the job content itself.
Question 107: What is the impact of Hygiene Factors according to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory?
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Correct Answer: B. Their absence causes serious dissatisfaction, but their presence only leads to ‘no dissatisfaction’. Hygiene factors are necessary to prevent dissatisfaction but do not, in themselves, provide positive motivation or satisfaction.
Question 108: Recognition for a job well done is considered which type of factor in Herzberg’s model?
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Correct Answer: C. Motivational Factor. Recognition is directly linked to feelings of achievement and is considered a key driver of job satisfaction and motivation.
Question 109: Interpersonal relations with supervisors and peers are classified as which type of factor by Herzberg?
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Correct Answer: C. Hygiene Factor. Relationships at work are part of the job context or environment. While poor relationships can cause dissatisfaction, good relationships primarily prevent dissatisfaction rather than actively motivate.
Question 110: According to Herzberg, what function do Hygiene factors primarily serve in the workplace?
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Correct Answer: C. They create the background or atmosphere for work and prevent dissatisfaction. Hygiene factors relate to the work environment; ensuring they are adequate is necessary to avoid dissatisfaction, but they are not the source of positive motivation.
Question 111: How many distinct types or levels of needs are proposed in Abraham Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory?
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Correct Answer: C. Five. Maslow’s theory outlines a hierarchy comprising five fundamental levels of human needs: Physiological, Safety, Social, Self-Esteem, and Self-Actualisation.
Question 112: Which need occupies the highest position in Maslow’s Need Hierarchy model?
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Correct Answer: D. Self-Actualisation Needs. Self-Actualisation, representing the drive to achieve one’s full potential, is considered the highest level need in Maslow’s hierarchical structure.
Question 113: Which term best describes the nature of Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory in terms of its practical guidance for managers?
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Correct Answer: B. Prescriptive. Herzberg’s theory goes beyond description; it prescribes that managers should focus on motivators to enhance job satisfaction and address hygiene factors to prevent dissatisfaction.
Question 114: Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory of motivation identifies which two primary categories of factors influencing employee attitudes towards work?
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Correct Answer: C. Motivators and Hygiene Factors. The core of Herzberg’s theory is the distinction between Motivators (related to job content, causing satisfaction) and Hygiene factors (related to job context, preventing dissatisfaction).
Question 115: Which three categories of needs form the basis of Clayton Alderfer’s ERG Theory?
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Correct Answer: B. Existence, Relatedness, Growth. ERG theory condenses Maslow’s hierarchy into three core needs: Existence (basic survival), Relatedness (social connections), and Growth (personal development).
Question 116: What principle, unique to ERG theory, suggests that if satisfaction of a higher-order need is frustrated, an individual may focus more intensely on satisfying a lower-order need?
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Correct Answer: C. Frustration-Regression. Alderfer proposed that frustration in attaining higher-level needs (like Growth) could lead to regression, increasing the desire to satisfy lower-level needs (like Relatedness or Existence).
Question 117: How does ERG theory differ from Maslow’s Hierarchy regarding the operation of needs?
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Correct Answer: C. ERG theory postulates that more than one need may be operative at the same time. Unlike Maslow’s generally sequential progression, ERG theory allows for multiple needs to be active simultaneously as motivators.
Question 118: According to David McClelland’s Achievement Motivation Theory, which three needs are key determinants of behaviour?
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Correct Answer: B. Achievement, Power, Affiliation. McClelland identified Need for Achievement (nAch), Need for Power (nPow), and Need for Affiliation (nAff) as primary learned needs influencing motivation.
Question 119: What primarily motivates individuals with a high Need for Achievement (nAch), according to McClelland?
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Correct Answer: D. The satisfaction derived from achieving goals and succeeding at tasks. High nAch individuals are driven by accomplishment itself; money serves more as an indicator of success rather than the primary motivator.
Question 120: Individuals with a high Need for Affiliation (nAff) are most likely to prioritize what in a work situation?
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Correct Answer: C. Building social ties and maintaining friendly relationships. High nAff individuals derive satisfaction from interpersonal connections and belonging, sometimes valuing relationships over task competence.
Question 121: Victor Vroom’s Expectancy Model is based on the belief that motivation is determined by what?
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Correct Answer: C. The nature of rewards people expect to get as a result of their job performance. Expectancy theory posits that individuals are motivated if they believe their effort leads to performance, which leads to desired rewards.
Question 122: In Vroom’s Expectancy Theory, what does ‘Instrumentality’ refer to?
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Correct Answer: C. The belief that performing at a particular level will lead to a desired outcome or reward. Instrumentality is the perceived link between successful performance (first-level outcome) and obtaining a specific reward (second-level outcome).
Question 123: What does ‘Valence’ represent in Vroom’s Expectancy Model?
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Correct Answer: C. The perceived value or importance a person assigns to a potential reward or outcome. Valence reflects individual preferences; a reward will only motivate if it is personally valued by the employee.
Question 124: According to Adams’ Equity Theory, what condition motivates individuals?
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Correct Answer: B. Perceiving that the rewards received for their contributions are fair compared to peers. Equity theory focuses on the perception of fairness in the ratio of one’s own inputs/outcomes compared to the ratio of a relevant comparison other.
Question 125: In Equity Theory, what are ‘Inputs’?
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Correct Answer: C. The characteristics an individual brings to the job, like education, skills, and effort. Inputs represent the contributions made by the individual to the organisation in exchange for outcomes.
Question 126: When individuals perceive inequity according to Adams’ theory, what are they motivated to do?
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Correct Answer: C. Reduce the perceived inequity. The feeling of unfairness creates tension, motivating the individual to take actions (behavioural or cognitive) to restore a sense of balance or equity.
Question 127: What is a key assumption of the Porter and Lawler Performance Satisfaction Model regarding individual behaviour?
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Correct Answer: B. Individuals are rational beings making conscious decisions about their behaviour. This model assumes employees make logical choices about their actions based on expectations of desired outcomes.
Question 128: In the Porter and Lawler model, what two factors determine the amount of effort an employee exerts?
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Correct Answer: C. Value of reward and Perception of effort-reward probability. Effort is seen as a function of how much the potential reward is valued (Valence) and the perceived likelihood that effort will actually lead to that reward (Expectancy).
Question 129: According to Porter and Lawler, performance leads to satisfaction contingent upon what?
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Correct Answer: C. The fairness of the rewards received for the performance. Satisfaction results when the actual rewards received (intrinsic and extrinsic) meet or exceed the rewards the individual perceives as equitable for their level of performance.
Question 130: B.F. Skinner’s Reinforcement Theory is based on which principle?
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Correct Answer: D. Law of Effect. Reinforcement theory operates on the principle that behaviour followed by rewarding consequences tends to be repeated, while behaviour followed by punishing consequences tends not to be repeated.
Question 131: What is the term used when operant conditioning principles are applied to control employee behaviour in organisations?
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Correct Answer: A. Organisational Behaviour Modification (OB Mod). OB Mod refers to the systematic application of reinforcement theory principles to shape and manage behaviour within an organisational setting.
Question 132: Which term describes the inner needs, wants, drives, or impulses within an individual that arouse and direct behaviour?
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Correct Answer: C. Motives. Motives are the internal states or ‘whys’ that energize behaviour and direct it towards certain goals.
Question 133: What term is sometimes used by psychologists for the external ‘hoped for’ rewards towards which motives are directed?
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Correct Answer: D. Incentives (Goals). Goals or incentives are the external stimuli or rewards (tangible or intangible) that individuals strive to attain, driven by their internal motives.
Question 134: While money is an important motivator, what limitation is mentioned regarding its utility?
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Correct Answer: B. It has a diminishing return; its motivational impact may lessen over time or beyond a certain point. Money’s effectiveness as a sole motivator can decrease as basic needs are met and other factors become more important.
Question 135: What is described as a highly effective non-monetary incentive that satisfies self-esteem needs?
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Correct Answer: C. Recognition and appreciation for good work. Acknowledging an employee’s contribution satisfies the need for esteem and feeling valued, often serving as a powerful non-financial motivator.
Question 136: What does ‘Job Enlargement’ involve?
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Correct Answer: C. Assigning more tasks of the same level to diversify skills. Job enlargement is a horizontal expansion, adding variety by increasing the number of similar-level tasks an employee performs.
Question 137: What is the primary aim of ‘Job Enrichment’?
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Correct Answer: C. To make jobs more challenging, creative, and involving higher responsibility and control. Job enrichment is a vertical expansion, aiming to increase intrinsic motivation by enhancing job depth, autonomy, and responsibility.
Question 138: Shifting an employee from working as a cashier to handling customer inquiries, both being non-supervisory roles, is an example of what?
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Correct Answer: B. Job Rotation. This involves moving an employee between different jobs at a similar level, often with different functionalities, to increase skill variety and reduce boredom.
Question 139: What potential disadvantage is associated with Job Rotation despite its benefits?
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Correct Answer: B. Employees may resist due to inertia or fear of the unknown. Some employees prefer the familiarity of their current job and may be hesitant to move to new roles, potentially limiting the effectiveness of job rotation.
Question 140: Associating employee representatives in managerial decision-making processes is known as what?
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Correct Answer: C. Participative Management. This approach involves employees in decisions that affect them, aiming to increase motivation, commitment, and acceptance of change.
Question 141: What does Article 43A of the Constitution of India, under Directive Principles of State Policy, relate to?
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Correct Answer: B. Workers’ Participation in Management (WPIM). Article 43A directs the state to take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings.
Question 142: What underlying assumption supports the motivational basis of employee participation?
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Correct Answer: B. Employees derive satisfaction from being involved in decisions and having some self-control. The premise is that involvement fosters a sense of importance, ownership, and effectiveness, leading to greater satisfaction and acceptance.
Question 143: What does ‘Quality of Work Life’ (QWL) generally refer to?
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Correct Answer: C. The degree to which employees can satisfy important personal needs through their organisational experience. QWL encompasses the overall quality of human experience in the workplace, considering factors beyond just pay or hours.
Question 144: Which factor is listed as contributing to a positive Quality of Work Life (QWL)?
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Correct Answer: C. An environment fostering employee self-esteem and identity. QWL includes aspects like adequate compensation, safety, skill development, growth opportunities, respect for rights, and fostering self-esteem.
Question 145: What term describes the set of expected behaviour patterns attributed to someone occupying a given position in a social unit?
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Correct Answer: C. Role. A role encompasses the pattern of actions and behaviours expected from an individual based on the position they hold within a social system like an organisation.
Question 147: What constitutes an individual’s ‘role space’?
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Correct Answer: C. The dynamic interrelationship between the self and the various roles an individual occupies. Role space refers to the collection of different roles a person plays (e.g., worker, parent, friend) centered around their sense of self.
Question 148: What potential role stress occurs when an individual is promoted but fails to effectively take charge of the demands and expectations of the new role?
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Correct Answer: C. Role Stagnation. This occurs when an individual, despite occupying a new role (often through promotion), feels stuck or unable to grow into its requirements effectively, leading to stress.
Question 149: A manager experiencing conflict between the demands of their job and the demands of their family life is facing which type of role conflict?
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Correct Answer: A. Inter-Role Distance conflict. This specific conflict arises from incompatible demands placed upon an individual by two or more different roles they occupy simultaneously (e.g., work role vs. family role).
Question 150: What causes ‘Role Ambiguity’?
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Correct Answer: C. Lack of clarity about the expectations, responsibilities, or priorities associated with one’s role. Role ambiguity arises when the role occupant is uncertain about what is expected of them, often due to insufficient information or understanding.
Question 151: When a role occupant feels overwhelmed by too many expectations or demands from significant others in their role set, what are they experiencing?
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Correct Answer: D. Role Overload. This occurs when the sheer volume of expectations and demands associated with a role exceeds the individual’s perceived capacity or resources to meet them.
Question 152: What term describes the feeling that some important functions or responsibilities one expects to perform are being carried out by someone else?
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Correct Answer: C. Role Erosion. This occurs when an individual feels their role is diminishing, often because duties they believe should be theirs are assigned to or taken over by others.
Question 153: A bank official feeling stressed because the branch lacks necessary modern communication equipment like fax or internet to perform their job effectively is experiencing what?
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Correct Answer: C. Resource Inadequacy. This type of role stress arises when the role occupant lacks the necessary resources (material, financial, informational, human) to perform their role effectively.
Question 154: What is ‘Personal Inadequacy’ in the context of role stress?
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Correct Answer: C. Feeling that one lacks the necessary knowledge, skills, or experience to perform the role effectively. This stress arises from a perceived gap between the demands of the role and the individual’s own capabilities.
Question 155: In Erikson’s final stage of personality development, what conflict must an individual resolve as they reflect on their life’s accomplishments or lack thereof?
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Correct Answer: D. Integrity vs. Despair. This eighth stage involves looking back on life; a sense of fulfillment leads to integrity, while regret and disappointment lead to despair, particularly relevant as one approaches the end of life and career.
Question 156: Erikson’s model describes personality development across how many distinct psychosocial stages?
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Correct Answer: C. Eight stages. Erikson identified eight developmental stages, each characterized by a specific psychosocial conflict, spanning from infancy to late adulthood.
Question 157: Which characteristic of a Type A personality might be considered advantageous in certain organisational roles requiring rapid results?
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Correct Answer: C. Desire for quick achievement. While Type A behaviour has drawbacks, the strong drive for rapid accomplishment can be beneficial in roles demanding speed, efficiency, and high output.
Question 158: Human behaviour in an organisational context is influenced by several factors which can be broadly grouped under which four categories?
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Correct Answer: B. Personal, Psychological, Organisational, Environmental. The text categorizes the influences on behaviour into these four main groups: Personal (age, sex, education), Psychological (personality, perception, attitudes), Organisational (job nature, structure, leadership), and Environmental (economic, social, political).
Question 159: Which approach to managing diversity involves assessing the organisational culture to identify barriers faced by non-traditional employees, often using surveys?
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Correct Answer: C. Cultural Audit. A cultural audit is a strategy used to understand the existing organisational culture and identify obstacles hindering the progress and integration of diverse employee groups.
Question 160: When managed effectively, what positive outcome can workforce diversity contribute to within workgroups?
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Correct Answer: C. Enhanced creativity and problem-solving. Effectively managed diversity can lead to better group processes, fostering creativity, improving problem-solving capabilities, and enhancing communication through varied perspectives.
Question 161: Why is understanding motivation considered a critical issue for managers in organisations?
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Correct Answer: B. Because managers face the challenge of how to encourage employees to work towards organisational goals. Motivation directly impacts employees’ willingness to exert effort and perform well, making it a key concern for managers responsible for achieving results through people.
Question 162: How do Maslow’s Need Hierarchy and Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory differ in their view of factors like salary and working conditions?
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Correct Answer: A. Maslow views them as potential motivators at lower levels, while Herzberg classifies them as Hygiene factors that primarily prevent dissatisfaction. Maslow includes salary/conditions in Physiological/Safety needs which must be met before higher needs motivate. Herzberg sees them as Hygiene factors (context) whose absence causes dissatisfaction, but whose presence doesn’t cause satisfaction/motivation.
Question 163: What does the ‘frustration-regression’ principle in Alderfer’s ERG theory suggest?
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Correct Answer: B. If a higher-order need is frustrated, the desire to satisfy a lower-order need increases. This principle explains that inability to fulfill growth or relatedness needs might lead an individual to focus more intensely on existence needs.
Question 164: Vroom’s Expectancy Theory proposes that motivation is a function of which three key elements?
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Correct Answer: D. Expectancy, Instrumentality, and Valence. Motivation is determined by the perceived likelihood that effort leads to performance (Expectancy), that performance leads to rewards (Instrumentality), and the value placed on those rewards (Valence).
Question 165: According to McClelland’s Achievement Motivation theory, what desire characterizes individuals with a high Need for Power (nPow)?
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Correct Answer: C. The desire to influence and control others and resources. Individuals high in nPow derive satisfaction from being in positions of influence, directing others, and having control over situations and resources.
Question 166: What is the primary goal of applying Job Enrichment as a motivational technique?
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Correct Answer: C. To increase job satisfaction by making work more challenging, responsible, and intrinsically rewarding. Job enrichment aims to enhance motivation by increasing the depth of a job, involving more planning, decision-making, and control (vertical loading).
Question 167: How can Job Rotation be applied to motivate employees?
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Correct Answer: B. By reducing boredom and developing a wider range of skills through movement between different jobs. Job rotation provides variety, prevents monotony associated with doing the same job for too long, and broadens employee skill sets.
Question 168: What situation describes a ‘Role Set Conflict’?
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Correct Answer: C. Incompatibility among the expectations held by different significant people related to a single role. Role set conflict arises when a person in a specific role receives conflicting demands or expectations from various people they interact with in that role (e.g., boss, subordinates, peers).