CAIIB ABM Module B UNIT 11 MCQ – Development of Human Resources.
AIIB ABM Module B UNIT 11 MCQ – Mock Online Test
Question 1: What is the modern term encompassing all aspects of dealing with people in an organisation?
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Correct Answer: C. Human Resource Management. The field concerned with managing people within an organisation, covering all related activities, is now referred to as Human Resource Management.
Question 2: Why has Human Resource Management gained the status of a crucial function in organisations?
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Correct Answer: B. Because of the realisation that people are important assets determining organisational success. Organisations now recognise that employees are not just factors of production but vital assets contributing significantly to overall success, elevating the importance of managing them effectively.
Question 3: What fundamental relationship have researchers and managers accepted regarding employees?
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Correct Answer: A. The linkage between individual satisfaction and organisational growth. There is an accepted connection between how satisfied an individual feels in their job and the overall growth and success of the organisation.
Question 4: What are some positive features of a job that contribute to a worker’s high level of job satisfaction?
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Correct Answer: B. Variety, challenge, good pay, security, autonomy, and pleasant co-workers. Job satisfaction is enhanced when work offers engaging elements like variety and challenge, along with tangible benefits like good remuneration and security, and positive environmental factors like autonomy and supportive colleagues.
Question 5: What kind of performance is typically associated with workers who are happy and committed to their work?
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Correct Answer: C. Extraordinary performance. Employees who experience high job satisfaction, feel committed, and are creative tend to exhibit performance levels that exceed standard expectations.
Question 6: The industrial revolution’s emphasis on quantity output led to what effect on the workplace?
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Correct Answer: B. De-humanisation of the workplace. The focus on mass production during the industrial revolution resulted in workplaces where human aspects like emotions and needs were often disregarded.
Question 7: What two primary approaches were developed to make work more meaningful and motivate employees beyond a mechanical perspective?
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Correct Answer: C. Recognising human emotions/needs and changing the job content to satisfy psycho-social needs. Efforts to enhance motivation involved acknowledging the human element (feelings, needs) and redesigning work activities to be inherently more satisfying and engaging.
Question 8: How does an organisation’s structure relate to the performance of its people?
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Correct Answer: C. The success of organisational units depends on the performance of people occupying roles within the structure. The overall organisational structure is composed of various roles, and the effectiveness of the organisation hinges on how well individuals perform in these specific roles.
Question 9: What attributes does an individual require to perform effectively in a specific job or role within the organisational structure?
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Correct Answer: C. Certain knowledge, skills, and attitude. Effective performance in a role requires a combination of relevant knowledge, practical skills, and the appropriate temperament or attitude suited for the job’s activities.
Question 10: Which approach is generally considered more costly for an organisation when needing people with new skills?
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Correct Answer: B. Getting new people with the required skills. Acquiring new employees typically involves higher costs compared to investing in the training and skill enhancement of the current workforce.
Question 11: What significant workplace change occurred during the 1990s that put pressure on training systems?
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Correct Answer: B. Massive computerisation of the workplace. The widespread adoption of personal computers in the 1990s fundamentally altered work processes, necessitating rapid computer literacy training across all operational levels.
Question 12: In the first two decades of the twenty-first century, what major economic factors increased competition for organisations in India?
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Correct Answer: B. Liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation. The opening up of the Indian economy through liberalisation, privatisation of state assets, and increased global integration led to a highly competitive business environment.
Question 13: What is a core component of Human Resource Development (HRD) process for employees?
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Correct Answer: B. Acquiring or sharpening capabilities for present or future jobs. HRD involves planned activities aimed at helping employees gain or improve the skills and abilities needed for their current roles or roles they might hold in the future.
Question 14: Besides job-specific skills, what else does HRD aim to develop in employees?
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Correct Answer: B. General capabilities as individuals and inner potential. HRD extends beyond job skills to foster the overall growth of employees as individuals, helping them discover and utilise their potential for personal and organisational benefit.
Question 15: Which area is NOT typically listed as a competency developed through HRD?
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Correct Answer: D. Financial investment strategies for personal wealth. HRD focuses on developing competencies relevant to work performance and organisational effectiveness, such as technical, managerial, behavioural, and conceptual skills, rather than personal financial management.
Question 16: According to Rao and Pereira, what is a specific goal of HRD related to relationships within the organisation?
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Correct Answer: B. Developing the dyadic relationship between each employee and his or her supervisor. A key goal of HRD is to improve the working relationship and interaction between an employee and their direct supervisor.
Question 17: Which of the following is typically considered a developmental subsystem developed to achieve HRD goals?
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Correct Answer: C. Learning and Development. Systems like Learning and Development, Performance Appraisal, and Career Planning are specifically designed to support the goals of Human Resource Development.
Question 18: What activity is considered fundamental to the successful implementation of various HRM subsystems, particularly developmental ones?
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Correct Answer: B. Job analysis. Understanding the details of each job (activities involved and personal attributes needed) through job analysis is crucial for effectively implementing HRM functions like development, recruitment, and performance management.
Question 19: What is the primary aim of effective HRM functions, supported by a deep understanding of jobs?
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Correct Answer: B. To provide the right person for the right job at the right time. A core objective of HRM, facilitated by thorough job understanding, is ensuring that individuals with the appropriate skills and attributes are placed in suitable roles when needed.
Question 20: Why is Job/Role Analysis considered a significant activity for achieving the goal of placing the right person in the right job at the right time?
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Correct Answer: B. It provides the necessary understanding of job requirements and suitable personnel attributes. Job/Role Analysis is vital because it details what a job entails and what kind of person is needed to perform it successfully, thereby enabling the matching of people to jobs effectively.
Question 21: What technique helps list the requirements for performing a task or job?
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Correct Answer: C. Job Analysis. Job analysis is specifically defined as a technique used to identify and list everything needed to carry out a particular task or job.
Question 22: Traditionally, what are the three components of a job analysis?
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Correct Answer: B. Job Description, Job Specification, and Job Evaluation. The conventional approach to job analysis involves breaking it down into these three distinct parts.
Question 23: Which component of traditional job analysis often becomes an independent exercise due to its link with wage structures?
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Correct Answer: C. Job Evaluation. Because job evaluation connects job complexities directly to pay scales, it is frequently handled separately from the descriptive and specification aspects of job analysis.
Question 24: Primarily, what two components does job analysis focus on after job evaluation is treated independently?
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Correct Answer: C. Job Description and Job Specification. When job evaluation is separated, the core focus of job analysis narrows down to describing the job’s activities (Job Description) and the required attributes of the person performing it (Job Specification).
Question 25: What elements are typically included in a Job Description?
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Correct Answer: B. Job title, job purpose, duties, qualifications, and working conditions. A job description provides a factual record of the job, detailing its title, overall purpose, specific tasks, necessary and preferred qualifications, and the environment in which it is performed.
Question 26: What does a Job Specification define?
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Correct Answer: B. The knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform a job. A job specification outlines the necessary human qualifications, such as education, experience, and specific competencies, needed to successfully carry out the job.
Question 27: What aspects are typically covered under Job Specification?
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Correct Answer: C. Education, work-experience, and managerial experience. Job specification focuses on the human requirements for the role, including educational background, relevant work history, and any necessary managerial experience.
Question 28: For which HR processes is Job Specification particularly helpful?
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Correct Answer: B. Recruitment & selection, performance evaluation, and appraisal & promotion. Knowing the required qualifications (Job Specification) aids in selecting the right candidates, assessing their performance against requirements, and making informed promotion decisions.
Question 29: What provides the fundamental data or information necessary for conducting Job Evaluation?
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Correct Answer: C. Job Analysis. Although often treated separately, job evaluation relies heavily on the detailed information about job activities, responsibilities, and required qualifications gathered through job analysis.
Question 30: Conceptually, what is the process of studying a job to determine its activities, responsibilities, relative importance, necessary qualifications, and working conditions called?
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Correct Answer: C. Job Analysis. Job analysis is the systematic study of a job to understand its various facets, including tasks, importance relative to other jobs, required qualifications, and the environment.
Question 31: What are the three primary types of data gathered during Job Analysis?
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Correct Answer: C. Work activities, worker attributes, and work context. Job analysis focuses on collecting information about what tasks are done (work activities), what qualities the worker needs (worker attributes), and the setting in which the work occurs (work context).
Question 32: What is a primary use of Job Analysis related to comparing jobs?
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Correct Answer: C. Comparing similarity between jobs within or between organisations. Job analysis allows for a systematic comparison of jobs based on their content and requirements, useful for internal alignment and external benchmarking.
Question 33: For which important HR function does Job Analysis often serve as a base, particularly regarding pay?
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Correct Answer: B. Wage settlements. By providing a basis for comparing job complexities and requirements, job analysis data is frequently used in determining fair and equitable wage structures.
Question 34: How does Job Analysis data support Manpower Planning?
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Correct Answer: B. By assessing the type and number of employees needed with different skills. Information from job analysis helps in forecasting future workforce needs by identifying the specific skills and quantities required.
Question 35: In the context of Learning and Development, how is Job Analysis data utilised?
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Correct Answer: C. To carry out training need identification and build capabilities where lacking. Job analysis reveals the knowledge and skills required for a job, highlighting gaps in current employees that can be addressed through targeted training.
Question 36: Which term describes a basic element of a job requiring a person to achieve a specific product, often in isolation?
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Correct Answer: D. Task. A task is considered the most fundamental unit of work, focused on achieving a specific output, often without significant interaction with others.
Question 37: Which term puts an individual in a hierarchical pattern with reporting relationships and expectations of conformity?
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Correct Answer: C. Position. The term ‘position’ specifically refers to an individual’s place within the organisational hierarchy, defining reporting lines and associated authority or subordination.
Question 38: Which concept emphasises the pattern of mutual expectations between individuals in an organisational setting?
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Correct Answer: D. Role. Unlike ‘position’ which focuses on hierarchy, ‘role’ emphasizes the set of reciprocal expectations and behaviours associated with a particular function within a social system like an organisation.
Question 39: From an HRD perspective, which concept is considered particularly relevant and imperative due to its focus on relationships and expectations?
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Correct Answer: D. Role. The concept of ‘role’ is highly significant in HRD because it moves beyond isolated tasks or hierarchical status to consider the complex web of expectations and interactions involving the job, the self, and others.
Question 40: What technique is specifically designed to clarify role expectations and obligations among team members to enhance effectiveness?
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Correct Answer: B. Role Analysis Technique (RAT). RAT is a specific method used to define and clarify the expectations, responsibilities, and interdependencies associated with different roles within a team or organisation.
Question 41: In Role Analysis, besides listing activities, what else is considered?
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Correct Answer: C. Expectations of counterparts (role set). Role analysis goes beyond job tasks to include the expectations held by others who interact with or depend on the person fulfilling that role.
Question 42: What are identified within the framework of a role to define crucial areas of performance?
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Correct Answer: A. Key Performance Areas (KPA). Within a role framework, KPAs are identified to specify the most critical areas where effective performance is expected.
Question 43: What factual statement details the duties and responsibilities of a specific job?
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Correct Answer: C. Job Description. The job description serves as the factual record outlining the specific tasks, duties, and responsibilities associated with a particular job.
Question 44: What does a Job Specification typically incorporate regarding the individual?
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Correct Answer: B. The standard of the individual’s designated qualities required for acceptable job performance. Job specification sets the minimum acceptable standards for the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes an individual must possess to perform the job adequately.
Question 45: For a job analysis process to be effective, what characteristics should it possess?
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Correct Answer: B. Well-defined, scientific, transparent, objective, and based on concrete data. An effective job analysis relies on a structured, evidence-based approach that is clear, unbiased, and uses verifiable information.
Question 46: Does the evolution in people management approaches necessitate discarding all previously developed management systems?
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Correct Answer: B. No, past systems can potentially continue alongside new approaches. Changes in management focus do not automatically render all older systems obsolete; some may still be relevant or adaptable.
Question 47: Which elements are considered critical subsystems within the Human Resource Development (HRD) framework of Human Resource Management (HRM)?
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Correct Answer: C. Performance Appraisal, and Training and Development. These are essential components focused on employee growth and evaluation within the broader HRD system.
Question 48: What represents a major challenge for HR functionaries regarding workforce knowledge in a changing environment?
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Correct Answer: D. Keeping the workforce updated with current, relevant knowledge. The primary training challenge is maintaining current skills and knowledge relevant to present and future needs, not forgetting the past entirely.
Question 49: How easily can new skills typically be integrated with existing, older skills within an organisation’s workforce?
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Correct Answer: C. Blending new skills with old ones can be challenging and may not be easy. Integrating new competencies often requires significant effort, training, and adaptation, and is not always a simple process.
Question 50: What serves as a fundamental framework for developing and implementing most Human Resource Development (HRD) systems?
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Correct Answer: C. Job Analysis. Understanding the requirements of jobs (through Job Analysis) is essential for designing effective recruitment, training, appraisal, and other HRD systems.
Question 51: Which specific HRD system has undergone significant qualitative modification over time?
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Correct Answer: B. Performance Appraisal. Methods and philosophies of evaluating employee performance have evolved significantly, moving beyond simple metrics to more developmental approaches.
Question 52: What is the relationship between Performance Appraisal and Potential Appraisal systems?
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Correct Answer: C. They share common ground but also have distinct focuses. While both involve assessment, Performance Appraisal typically looks at past/present job performance, whereas Potential Appraisal focuses on future capabilities and roles.
Question 53: What function can Career Planning serve for employees within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: C. It serves as a motivational exercise for employees. Providing a path for growth and development through career planning can significantly motivate employees.
Question 54: How is the term ‘Organisational Development’ correctly defined?
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Correct Answer: B. It is a planned effort to improve organisational effectiveness and health. Organisational Development involves strategic interventions to enhance overall functioning, culture, and capabilities, not just physical growth.
Question 55: What is the appropriate role of the Human Resources (HR) department concerning business planning?
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Correct Answer: C. HR should be involved in business planning, aligning HR strategy with business goals. Effective HR contributes strategically by ensuring the organisation has the right people and skills to achieve its business objectives.
Question 56: What knowledge is essential for HR managers regarding jobs within the organisation?
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Correct Answer: C. Both the type of people needed and the activities involved in the job. A comprehensive understanding of both the job’s tasks and the required personnel characteristics is crucial for effective HR management.
Question 57: From which primary sources is data for conducting a job analysis typically obtained?
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Correct Answer: C. Mainly from the job holder, his/her supervisor, and a job analyst. These stakeholders provide direct and expert insights into the job’s duties, requirements, and context.
Question 58: What fundamental role does Job Analysis (including Job Description and Job Specification) play in Human Resources?
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Correct Answer: B. It provides the basic data necessary for implementing various HR functions. Job Analysis outputs are foundational for recruitment, training, performance management, compensation, and other key HR activities.
Question 59: What fundamental need, beyond job performance, was eventually recognised in employees, leading to new approaches in managing people?
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Correct Answer: C. The basic need to grow and develop capabilities. It was realised that individuals are not static and possess a natural inclination towards growth and self-actualisation, similar to fulfilling physical needs.
Question 60: How is ‘Learning and Development’ generally defined in an organisational context?
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Correct Answer: C. A systematic process to enhance employee skills, knowledge, and competency for better work performance. It aims to improve individual or group behaviour and effectiveness through shared knowledge and skill acquisition.
Question 61: What is the primary focus of ‘Learning’ as distinct from ‘Development’ within the Learning and Development framework?
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Correct Answer: B. The acquisition of specific knowledge, skills, and attitudes. Learning specifically concerns gaining new competencies, while development focuses on deepening this knowledge over the long term.
Question 62: According to Nadler’s classification, what term is used for learning specifically related to improving performance in the present job?
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Correct Answer: C. Training. Training focuses on the skills and knowledge required for the current role, whereas education prepares for a future identified job, and development is for general individual growth.
Question 63: What term does Nadler use for learning activities aimed at preparing an individual for a different but identified future job?
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Correct Answer: B. Education. In Nadler’s framework, education is distinct from training (present job) and development (general growth) as it focuses on preparing for a specific future role.
Question 64: Which term describes learning focused on the general growth of an individual, not tied to a specific present or future job?
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Correct Answer: C. Development. Development refers to broader, long-term learning aimed at personal growth, distinct from job-specific training or education for an identified future role.
Question 65: Why is it considered important to differentiate between training, education, and development objectives within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: C. To clarify expectations, evaluation methods, and responsibility for each type of learning activity. Differentiating helps in setting clear goals, evaluating outcomes appropriately, and assigning responsibility (e.g., supervisor for training, HR for development).
Question 66: What is the fundamental difference between ‘Pedagogy’ (child learning) and ‘Andragogy’ (adult learning)?
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Correct Answer: C. Pedagogy involves the teacher making all decisions, while Andragogy involves active inquiry by the learner. Adult learning (Andragogy) emphasizes learner autonomy and active participation, unlike traditional child learning models (Pedagogy).
Question 67: Which principle is central to the concept of ‘Andragogy’?
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Correct Answer: B. Learning is a process of active inquiry by the learner. Andragogy, or adult learning theory, stresses the importance of the learner’s active involvement and self-direction in the learning process.
Question 68: According to Mechanistic (behaviourist) learning theories, how does learning primarily occur?
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Correct Answer: C. When a learner is conditioned to give a predetermined response to a specific stimulus. Behaviourist theories view the learner as passive, with learning occurring through stimulus-response conditioning.
Question 69: What is the main proposition of Cognitive learning theories?
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Correct Answer: D. Human brains are capable of critical thinking and problem-solving, which is the purpose of learning. Cognitive theories focus on the brain’s processing capabilities and emphasize learning through understanding and reasoning.
Question 70: What condition do Organismic (Humanistic) learning theories propose for effective learning?
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Correct Answer: C. Learners require the freedom to learn what is personally relevant to their life situation. Humanistic theories emphasize learner autonomy, personal relevance, and the goal of developing individual potential.
Question 71: Why is feedback considered essential in the learning process?
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Correct Answer: B. Feedback helps learners identify errors and acts as a motivator by confirming progress. Knowing the results allows for correction and provides reinforcement when learning is proceeding correctly.
Question 72: For learning to be effective in an organisational setting, what must be true about its application?
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Correct Answer: B. Learning must be transferable and applicable to the actual job. For training or learning to provide value, the acquired knowledge or skills must be applicable in the work environment.
Question 73: How might training content differ between young recruits and senior management within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: C. Young recruits might focus on management techniques, while senior management might focus on vision and strategy. Training content is typically tailored to the experience level and responsibilities of the group, with different focuses for new hires versus top executives.
Question 74: When an organisation accepts a developmental emphasis, what becomes essential regarding its training activities?
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Correct Answer: B. Establishing well-planned and systematic training systems. A developmental focus requires structured training processes to ensure learning objectives aligned with organisational goals are met effectively. For example, instead of random workshops, a company might implement a structured programme for new managers.
Question 75: What fundamental question must a systematic approach to training address regarding the location of training delivery?
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Correct Answer: B. Whether training should be conducted internally or externally. A systematic approach involves deciding on the delivery mechanism, including using in-house resources or external institutions. For instance, basic software training might be internal, while specialised leadership courses might be external.
Question 76: What is the first logical step in implementing a systematic approach to training within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: D. Training Need Analysis (TNA) and Identification of Training Needs. Before planning or conducting any training, it is essential to first determine what training is actually required by analysing current and future needs. For example, analysing performance data might reveal a need for customer service training.
Question 77: From where can information about present training needs (skill gaps) typically be derived?
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Correct Answer: B. From employee performance appraisals, productivity measures, and error rates. Gaps in current employee knowledge, skills, or attitudes can be identified by examining performance data, quality issues, or appraisal feedback. For instance, frequent customer complaints might indicate a gap in communication skills.
Question 78: What factor must be considered when identifying training needs related to the future?
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Correct Answer: C. The organisation’s future business plans, potential expansions, or technological changes. Future training needs arise from anticipated changes, requiring assessment of existing skills against future requirements. For example, if a bank plans to introduce new digital services, employees will need training on those platforms.
Question 79: Can all employee performance problems be effectively addressed through training interventions alone?
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Correct Answer: B. No, problems due to poor technology or working conditions may require different solutions. Training addresses skill or knowledge gaps, but cannot fix issues stemming from inadequate tools, processes, or environment. For example, training won’t improve output if the machinery is constantly breaking down.
Question 80: After identifying training needs, what is the primary focus during the preparation of the Annual Training Plan?
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Correct Answer: B. Prioritising identified needs and balancing them with available resources. The planning stage involves making strategic decisions about which training needs are most critical and feasible given resource constraints. For example, a company might prioritise mandatory compliance training over optional soft-skills workshops if resources are limited.
Question 81: Which of the following is an example of an ‘on-the-job’ training method?
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Correct Answer: C. Job rotation or an understudy assignment. On-the-job methods involve learning while performing actual work tasks or closely related activities within the work environment. For instance, a junior accountant might learn by rotating through different accounting functions like accounts payable and receivable.
Question 82: What is considered the logical starting point when designing the specifics of any training programme?
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Correct Answer: C. Spelling out the clear objectives of the programme. Clearly defined objectives guide decisions about content, methodology, duration, and evaluation criteria for the training. For example, an objective “to improve conflict resolution skills” will lead to different content and methods than an objective “to understand new safety regulations”.
Question 83: Which factor influences the choice of teaching methodology in a training programme?
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Correct Answer: B. The programme objectives and the profile of the participants. Methodology selection depends on what needs to be taught (objectives) and the characteristics of the learners (e.g., experience level). For instance, a lecture might suit conveying information, while a role-play is better for practicing interpersonal skills.
Question 84: According to the common four-level model, what does the ‘Reaction Level’ of training evaluation measure?
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Correct Answer: C. Participants’ opinions about the training content, methods, and relevance. The reaction level assesses immediate feedback on how participants felt about the training experience. For example, using feedback forms at the end of a session captures reactions.
Question 85: What does the ‘Behaviour Level’ of training evaluation aim to assess?
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Correct Answer: B. The extent to which participants apply the learned skills or knowledge back at their workplace. This level focuses on the transfer of learning to actual job performance and observable changes in work behaviour. For instance, observing if a manager uses newly learned coaching techniques with their team.
Question 86: What is a potential advantage of using practicing managers or operational personnel as internal trainers?
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Correct Answer: B. They can relate the training content directly to actual work situations and use familiar language. Internal operational staff bring practical relevance and speak the ‘language’ of the trainees. For example, a senior engineer teaching junior engineers can use specific project examples.
Question 87: What is a potential disadvantage of relying solely on internal operational personnel as trainers?
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Correct Answer: C. They may adopt a narrow approach, potentially lacking exposure to new ideas or broader concepts. Over-reliance on internal trainers might limit the introduction of fresh perspectives or advanced techniques from outside the organisation (‘in-breeding’). For example, they might teach only “how we’ve always done it here”.
Question 88: If an organisation recruits professional trainers from academia or external sources, what is often a necessary developmental step for them?
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Correct Answer: C. Orienting them towards the organisation’s specific issues and work situations. External trainers, while skilled in teaching, need to understand the specific context, challenges, and culture of the organisation they are training for. For example, placing them briefly in relevant departments helps them relate theory to practice.
Question 89: For Human Resource Management (HRM) philosophy to be successful, especially concerning learning and development, what is considered significant?
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Correct Answer: C. Linkages and congruence among the various HR sub-systems. The success of HR, particularly development initiatives, relies on the smooth integration and consistency between its different parts, like performance management and training. For example, training needs identified in performance appraisals should align with the training programmes offered.
Question 90: Which HR system provides crucial information flow that supports the learning and development system, preventing it from becoming merely a mechanical process?
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Correct Answer: C. The performance appraisal system. Performance appraisals identify skill gaps and developmental needs, providing essential input for relevant and effective training, thus ensuring it’s a developmental process, not just procedural. For instance, if an appraisal highlights poor presentation skills, this data informs the training department.
Question 91: What function does a comprehensive and updated Human Resource Information System (HRIS) serve for training and development efforts?
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Correct Answer: B. It serves as a useful database containing employee experience, placements, and skills for planning training. An effective HRIS stores vital employee data that helps in identifying training needs, selecting participants, and tracking development progress. For example, HRIS data can show which employees lack a specific certification required for a new project.
Question 92: Beyond formal systems, what provides the most critical support for the success of training and development initiatives within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: B. The organisational culture, including shared beliefs and values about development. The attitudes and commitment of top management, supervisors, and peers towards training significantly impact its effectiveness and employee motivation. For example, if managers actively encourage and support staff attending training, it signals the value placed on development.
Question 93: Which belief, when actively supported and reiterated by top management, significantly contributes to a positive environment for Human Resource Development (HRD)?
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Correct Answer: D. Human resources are the most important assets and can be developed significantly. A core belief underpinning effective HRD is that employees are valuable and possess potential that can be nurtured, requiring commitment from all levels of management. For instance, a CEO emphasizing employee growth in company meetings reinforces this belief.
Question 94: What is the primary rationale for providing training within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: B. To enable the individual and the organisation to achieve their respective goals. Training should be purposeful, aligning employee skill enhancement with both individual growth needs and organisational objectives, not just based on employee preference. For example, training improves job performance which helps the organisation, and enhances skills which helps the individual’s career.
Question 95: Should employees be allowed to learn anything they desire under the organisation’s development programme?
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Correct Answer: C. No, learning opportunities should align with organisational goals and requirements. While employee development is encouraged, organisational resources are typically directed towards learning that benefits both the employee’s growth and the organisation’s needs. For instance, learning advanced basket weaving might not be supported unless relevant to the business.
Question 96: Is it necessary to differentiate between the concepts of training, education, and development in HRD?
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Correct Answer: B. Yes, differentiating helps clarify objectives, evaluation methods, and responsibilities. Understanding the distinct focus of each (present job, future job, general growth) allows for better planning, resource allocation, and assessment of learning outcomes.
Question 97: Do the terms ‘Pedagogy’ and ‘Andragogy’ refer to the same approach to learning?
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Correct Answer: C. No, Pedagogy typically refers to child learning (teacher-centric) while Andragogy refers to adult learning (learner-centric). Andragogy recognizes that adults learn differently from children, emphasizing self-direction and experience.
Question 98: Under what condition is learning less likely to occur effectively?
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Correct Answer: C. When there is an absence of motivation in the learner. Motivation is a key factor in learning; without the desire or drive to learn, the process is significantly less effective. For example, an employee forced into training they see no value in is unlikely to learn much.
Question 99: Is it always preferable for an organisation to conduct all its training exclusively in-house?
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Correct Answer: C. No, a mix of in-house and external training might be optimal depending on needs and resources. While in-house training offers control and relevance, external institutions might provide specialized expertise or broader perspectives not available internally. For example, bank-specific procedures are taught in-house, but advanced data analytics might require external experts.
Question 100: What does Training Need Analysis (TNA) fundamentally involve?
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Correct Answer: B. A systematic process of identifying gaps between desired and existing skills or knowledge. TNA is the diagnostic step in the training cycle, focused on determining what training is needed by analysing performance data, future plans, and competency levels. For example, TNA might involve surveys, interviews, and performance reviews.
Question 101: Does the annual training plan simply represent a collection of all training needs identified during TNA?
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Correct Answer: C. No, the plan involves prioritising needs and allocating resources based on organisational objectives. The training plan translates the analysed needs into a structured schedule, considering priorities, budget, and logistical constraints. Not every identified need may make it into the final plan for a given year.
Question 102: What primarily determines the specific methodologies (e.g., lecture, case study, role play) used in a training session?
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Correct Answer: B. The objectives of the training, the subject matter, and the participant profile. While trainer skill is relevant, the choice of method should align with the learning goals and the audience’s characteristics for maximum effectiveness. For instance, teaching a complex theory might use lectures, while practicing negotiation skills requires role-plays.
Question 103: Is it always possible to precisely quantify all aspects of training effectiveness during evaluation?
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Correct Answer: C. No, while some aspects can be measured, quantifying the total effect, especially long-term impact, can be challenging. Evaluating reactions and immediate learning is feasible, but measuring direct behavioural change and organisational impact (Level 3 & 4) is more complex and may not always be fully quantifiable.
Question 104: Do operational personnel selected as internal trainers require specific training in teaching methodology?
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Correct Answer: C. Yes, specific training in teaching methods is often beneficial for operational staff transitioning into a trainer role. While subject matter experts, operational staff may lack skills in instructional design, delivery techniques, and adult learning principles, which can be developed through specific training.
Question 105: What is the primary purpose of ‘Training’ according to the classification discussed?
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Correct Answer: C. Learning related specifically to the employee’s present job. Training is aimed at improving performance and capabilities in the current role assigned to the employee. For instance, training a cashier on a new billing software.
Question 106: What distinguishes ‘Development’ from ‘Training’ and ‘Education’ in the context of employee learning?
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Correct Answer: C. Development involves learning for general individual growth, not tied to a specific job. Unlike training (present job) or education (specific future job), development aims at broadening an individual’s capabilities and potential in a more general sense. For example, attending a seminar on strategic thinking enhances overall capability.
Question 107: How is an ‘Attitude’ defined in the context of human behaviour?
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Correct Answer: B. A persistent tendency to feel and behave in a particular way towards an object. Attitudes are relatively stable predispositions towards things like people, ideas, or situations, influencing feelings and actions. For example, consistently preferring teamwork over individual work reflects an attitude.
Question 108: Which component of attitude involves a person’s feelings or affect (positive, neutral, or negative) about an object?
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Correct Answer: D. Emotional component. This component relates to the feelings, sentiments, or emotions one holds towards the attitude object. For instance, feeling happy and enthusiastic about a new project involves the emotional component.
Question 109: What does the informational component of an attitude consist of?
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Correct Answer: C. The beliefs and information (factual or otherwise) the individual has about the object. This cognitive aspect includes the thoughts and knowledge, whether accurate or not, that someone associates with the attitude object. For example, believing that a particular software is difficult to learn constitutes the informational component.
Question 110: Which component of attitude relates to a person’s tendency to act in a particular way towards the object?
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Correct Answer: C. Behavioural component. This refers to the action aspect – how one is inclined to behave or respond concerning the attitude object. For example, actively avoiding tasks that involve public speaking reflects the behavioural component of an attitude towards it.
Question 111: Why is understanding employee attitudes considered important in the workplace?
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Correct Answer: B. Because attitudes help predict work behaviour and help people adapt to their environment. Attitudes influence actions like absenteeism or productivity and shape how employees adjust to workplace situations. For example, a positive attitude towards change may lead to quicker adoption of new processes.
Question 112: Which function of attitudes helps people adjust to their work environment, such as developing a positive attitude towards a supportive boss?
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Correct Answer: D. The Adjustment Function. Attitudes can help individuals fit in or adapt based on their experiences. For instance, if good performance is consistently rewarded, an employee might develop a positive attitude towards high effort, aiding adjustment.
Question 113: When an older manager develops a negative attitude towards a younger subordinate who challenges decisions, possibly to protect their self-image, which function of attitude is likely operating?
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Correct Answer: B. The Ego-Defensive Function. Attitudes can serve to protect one’s self-esteem or ego, even if it involves distorting reality. For example, blaming others for a mistake (negative attitude towards them) can protect one’s own sense of competence.
Question 114: If a manager strongly believes in the work ethic and voices opinions on work practices reflecting this value, which attitude function is demonstrated?
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Correct Answer: C. The Value-Expression Function. Attitudes allow individuals to express their core values and beliefs. For instance, someone valuing environmentalism might express negative attitudes towards wasteful company practices.
Question 115: How does the Knowledge Function of attitudes assist individuals?
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Correct Answer: B. It provides standards and frames of reference to organise and explain the world. Attitudes offer mental shortcuts to structure understanding and make sense of people and events, even if the attitude isn’t entirely accurate. For example, a generalised attitude towards a political party helps organise information about its candidates.
Question 116: What is considered a major barrier to changing attitudes, where a person feels committed to a particular course of action and is unwilling to change?
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Correct Answer: B. Prior commitment. Once someone is committed to a belief or action, they become resistant to information or influences that might change that attitude. For instance, someone who has publicly supported a project may resist evidence suggesting it’s failing.
Question 117: What is an effective way to overcome barriers and potentially change a person’s attitude?
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Correct Answer: C. Providing new information that challenges existing beliefs. Introducing new facts or perspectives can alter the informational component of an attitude, leading to a potential shift. For example, showing data on the safety of a procedure might change a negative attitude based on misinformation.
Question 118: According to research, what level of fear arousal is often most effective in changing attitudes?
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Correct Answer: C. Moderate levels, which create awareness without being overly threatening. Low levels may be ignored, while very high levels can cause rejection of the message; moderate fear is often optimal for prompting change. For example, warnings about health risks from smoking using moderate imagery might be more effective than extremely graphic or very mild warnings.
Question 119: Taking people who are dissatisfied with a situation and involving them in improving things is a method of attitude change known as:
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Correct Answer: C. Co-opting. Involving dissenters in the process can change their perspective and attitude as they gain understanding and ownership. For example, making a critic of company policy part of the committee reviewing that policy.
Question 120: What does the term ‘Career’ primarily refer to?
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Correct Answer: B. The sequence and variety of work roles undertaken throughout life. A career encompasses the entirety of a person’s work-related experiences and roles over time.
Question 121: What is ‘Career Development’?
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Correct Answer: B. A lifelong process of managing learning, work, and transitions. It’s an ongoing journey unique to each individual, involving continuous learning and adaptation in the world of work.
Question 122: What constitutes a ‘Career Path’?
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Correct Answer: B. A sequence of jobs leading towards short- and long-term career goals. It represents a structured progression of roles designed to achieve specific career objectives. For example, starting as a junior engineer, moving to senior engineer, then to project manager.
Question 123: According to Erik Erikson’s life stages, what is the primary developmental task during Adolescence?
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Correct Answer: C. Achieving ego identity. This stage focuses on forming a stable sense of self by reconciling self-perceptions with how one believes others see them.
Question 124: In Levinson’s model of Career Transitions, how often do individuals tend to pass through significant personal or career-related crises?
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Correct Answer: B. Approximately every five to seven years. Levinson’s research suggests careers involve periodic transitions or points of re-evaluation roughly within this timeframe.
Question 125: In the ‘Career Roles’ model by Dalton, Thompson, and Price, what role typically involves doing routine work under supervision and learning the basics?
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Correct Answer: D. Apprentice. This initial stage involves learning, dependency, and performing less complex tasks under guidance. For example, a trainee lawyer assisting a senior partner.
Question 126: Which career role signifies the beginning of making an independent contribution, though still potentially in a subordinate position?
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Correct Answer: B. Colleague. In this stage, individuals start contributing independently, relying less on direct supervision for their core tasks. For instance, a software developer working on their assigned module within a team.
Question 127: What type of career pattern, according to Driver, involves individuals shifting frequently between unrelated jobs without necessarily seeking excellence in any one?
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Correct Answer: C. Transitory Career. This pattern is characterized by frequent job changes, often across different fields, without a focus on deep skill development or hierarchical progression in one area.
Question 128: Which career concept describes individuals who choose a profession, acquire high skills within it, but prefer not to move up the organisational hierarchy?
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Correct Answer: B. Steady State Career. This involves commitment to a specific field and skill mastery, but without the drive for managerial or hierarchical advancement. For example, a highly skilled craftsman who prefers hands-on work over management.
Question 129: According to Schein’s framework, which dimension of career movement refers to moving along the hierarchy of the organisation?
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Correct Answer: C. Vertical movement. This dimension represents the traditional upward (or downward) progression through organisational levels or ranks.
Question 130: What does Schein’s concept of ‘Radial’ career movement represent?
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Correct Answer: C. Movement towards the centre (core) of the organisation’s influence or power structure. This dimension signifies gaining centrality, influence, or inclusion within the organisation’s inner circle.
Question 131: What is a ‘Career Anchor’ as conceptualised by Schein?
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Correct Answer: C. An individual’s self-concept of their talents, motives, and values that guides career decisions. Career anchors are stabilizing forces reflecting what an individual truly values and is good at, influencing their career choices.
Question 132: What is the primary definition of Career Planning in an organisational context?
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Correct Answer: B. A process of systematically matching career goals and capabilities with opportunities. Career planning aims to align individual aspirations and abilities with available organisational paths for growth and fulfillment. For example, identifying an employee’s goal to become a manager and matching it with training opportunities and potential openings.
Question 133: Career planning, as an HRD sub-system, primarily aims to help whom?
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Correct Answer: C. The individual employee to grow within the organisation. It is directed towards structuring and guiding employees’ aspirations for upward movement and development.
Question 134: Does establishing a career path guarantee promotion for an employee?
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Correct Answer: C. No, it is a facility for growth but not a guaranteed right for advancement. While it outlines potential progression, advancement depends on performance, available positions, and meeting criteria. For example, reaching a certain level on the path requires passing specific assessments.
Question 135: What is a crucial element that should be made known to employees from the time of entry regarding the career path?
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Correct Answer: B. The sequence of job assignments, training requirements, and promotion criteria. Transparency about the path, including expectations and benchmarks, is essential for effective career planning.
Question 136: What is the term for identified clusters of jobs at a specific organisational level that are comparable in terms of knowledge and skill requirements?
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Correct Answer: B. Job Families. Grouping similar jobs helps in structuring career paths, ensuring individuals gain relevant experience even if specific identical roles aren’t available in all units. For example, various analyst roles requiring similar data skills might form a job family.
Question 137: When an employee transitions between career stages, especially from ‘Colleague’ to ‘Mentor’, what is often required to facilitate the change?
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Correct Answer: C. Training and counselling to highlight the change in orientation (e.g., towards development). Moving between roles with different expectations (like becoming responsible for others’ development as a mentor) requires support to manage the transition effectively.
Question 138: What trend has made the concept of ‘multiple careers’ within a single organisation more feasible and relevant?
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Correct Answer: B. Increased specialisation of functions like finance, IT, and HR requiring distinct expertise. As functions become more complex, they offer distinct career paths requiring specialised competencies, allowing for multiple career tracks within one company. For example, an engineer could develop expertise and follow a career path in IT management within the same firm.
Question 139: In the context of multiple careers and flatter organisations, what becomes increasingly crucial for employee progression?
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Correct Answer: C. Developing expertise in one or more specialised areas. With fewer hierarchical levels, career growth often involves deepening or broadening expertise rather than just climbing a traditional ladder.
Question 140: What is the ‘patent self’ as distinct from the ‘inner self’?
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Correct Answer: B. The external aspects like identity and physical features. The patent self refers to the readily observable characteristics used for initial identification, unlike the inner self’s psychological attributes. For example, identifying someone as ‘the person with glasses’ relates to the patent self.
Question 141: What does ‘self-development’ essentially refer to?
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Correct Answer: B. Developing a mature personality capable of handling varied tasks and situations. It’s an ongoing process of discovering and utilising one’s potential for personal improvement and effectiveness.
Question 142: For organisational change strategies to be truly effective, what must happen at the individual employee level?
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Correct Answer: B. Employees’ mindsets must align with the spirit of the changes. Structural or strategic changes require corresponding shifts in employee understanding and attitude to be successfully implemented. For example, a shift to customer-centricity requires employees to adopt that mindset, not just follow new procedures mechanically.
Question 143: What are the key factors identified as contributing to ‘Personal Efficacy’?
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Correct Answer: B. Motivation, self-awareness, proactive behaviour, and action-orientation. Personal efficacy involves understanding oneself, being driven, taking initiative, and focusing on action to improve capabilities and achieve goals.
Question 144: What does ‘Locus of Control’ refer to?
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Correct Answer: B. An individual’s belief about who or what is responsible for events in their life. It reflects whether someone attributes outcomes to internal factors (their own actions) or external factors (luck, fate, powerful others).
Question 145: According to French and Raven’s model, which type of power stems from the threat or use of punishment?
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Correct Answer: D. Coercive Power. This power base relies on the ability to impose negative consequences or penalties on others. For example, a manager threatening disciplinary action for non-compliance.
Question 146: Which power base derives from the formal position held by an individual within the organisational hierarchy?
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Correct Answer: B. Legitimate Power (or Position Power). This authority comes from the role itself, granting the holder the right to direct others within defined limits. For instance, a team leader having the authority to assign tasks.
Question 147: When employees comply with a leader because they admire and identify with them, wishing to emulate their behaviour, what type of power is being exercised?
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Correct Answer: D. Referent Power. This power stems from interpersonal attraction and respect, where followers identify with and want to please the leader. For example, following a highly respected mentor’s advice willingly.
Question 148: A manager gains influence primarily due to their specialised knowledge, skills, and credibility in a particular are
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Correct Answer: C. Expert Power. This power is based on possessing valued knowledge or expertise that others depend on. For example, colleagues seeking advice from the person known to be most skilled in a complex software.
Question 149: According to Schutz’s theory of interpersonal needs, which need relates to establishing and maintaining satisfactory relationships regarding interaction and association?
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Correct Answer: C. Inclusion. This fundamental need concerns belonging, interaction, and feeling connected with others. For example, the desire to be part of a team or social group.
Question 150: In Transactional Analysis, which ego state is associated with logical, reasonable, analytical, and unemotional behaviour focused on processing information?
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Correct Answer: B. Adult ego state. This state operates based on rational thought, problem-solving, and objective assessment of reality. For example, calmly analysing data before making a decision.
Question 151: Which ego state contains ‘natural’ impulses, creativity, curiosity, and emotional responses learned from earlier experiences?
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Correct Answer: C. Child ego state. This state reflects feelings, impulses, and experiences from childhood, encompassing aspects like spontaneity, creativity, and emotional reactions. For example, expressing spontaneous joy or frustration.
Question 152: According to Harris’s life positions concept, which position reflects a healthy perspective where both oneself and others are seen as having value?
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Correct Answer: D. I am OK, you are OK. This position represents a positive outlook on both self and others, fostering constructive interactions.
Question 153: What is ‘synergy’ in the context of teamwork?
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Correct Answer: B. The combined effect of a team achieving results greater than the sum of individual efforts. Synergy occurs when collaboration produces outcomes superior to what members could achieve independently.
Question 154: What does the term ‘Group Dynamics’ refer to?
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Correct Answer: B. The study of how groups form, their structure, processes, and effects. Coined by Kurt Lewin, it encompasses the internal nature and functioning of groups.
Question 155: In the stages of group formation, which stage is typically characterized by conflict among members as the team attempts to define itself and roles?
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Correct Answer: B. Storming. This stage often involves disagreements, power struggles, and clarification of expectations and roles before the group settles into more cooperative functioning.
Question 156: During which stage of group development are norms established regarding task accomplishment and team behaviour?
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Correct Answer: C. Norming. After the conflict phase (Storming), the group develops agreed-upon standards, procedures, and expectations for working together.
Question 157: What framework is suggested as always useful for understanding one’s Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats to aid self-development?
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Correct Answer: C. SWOT analysis of self. Performing a personal SWOT analysis helps individuals understand these four aspects, which aids in self-development and better utilisation of potential. For example, identifying ‘strong communication skills’ as a Strength and ‘fear of public speaking’ as a Weakness.
Question 158: In the Johari Window model, what does the ‘Arena’ (or Open) quadrant represent?
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Correct Answer: C. Aspects of personality known to both self and others. The Arena represents the shared knowledge area about an individual’s behaviour and characteristics. For example, if both you and your colleagues know you are organised, that trait is in the Arena.
Question 159: According to the Johari Window concept, which quadrant represents aspects unknown to the self but visible to others?
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Correct Answer: B. Blind. This area contains information or traits that others perceive in an individual, but the individual is unaware of. For instance, a person might not realise they interrupt others frequently, but their colleagues notice it.
Question 160: How can the size of the ‘Arena’ (Open-self) in the Johari Window be increased to improve interpersonal effectiveness?
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Correct Answer: B. By receiving feedback from others and engaging in self-disclosure. Increasing the open area involves becoming more aware of one’s blind spots through feedback and revealing more hidden aspects through disclosure. For example, asking colleagues for constructive criticism and sharing one’s own work challenges.
Question 161: What does ‘Emotional Intelligence’ primarily refer to?
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Correct Answer: C. The capability to manage one’s own emotions and influence others’ emotions. It involves understanding and regulating personal feelings and recognising and responding appropriately to the feelings of others. For example, staying calm under pressure and empathising with a distressed colleague.
Question 162: How does Emotional Intelligence (EI) generally differ from traditional IQ regarding its development over time?
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Correct Answer: C. EI can be learned and developed throughout adulthood, while IQ is considered relatively stable. Unlike IQ, emotional competencies can be acquired and improved with awareness, effort, and maturity.
Question 163: Which component of Emotional Intelligence involves the ability to recognise and understand one’s own moods, emotions, and drives, and their effect on others?
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Correct Answer: D. Self-Awareness. This is the foundation of EI, involving understanding one’s own internal state, preferences, resources, and intuitions. For example, recognising you feel anxious before a presentation and understanding why.
Question 164: Controlling or redirecting disruptive impulses and moods, and suspending judgment before acting, falls under which component of Emotional Intelligence?
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Correct Answer: B. Self-Regulation. This involves managing one’s internal states, impulses, and resources effectively. For instance, choosing not to react angrily immediately during a disagreement, but instead pausing to think.
Question 165: What does ‘Empathy’, as a component of Emotional Intelligence, primarily involve?
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Correct Answer: C. The ability to understand the emotional makeup and perspectives of other people. Empathy is about sensing others’ feelings and viewpoints and taking an active interest in their concerns. For example, understanding why a team member might be frustrated with a task, even if you don’t feel the same way.
Question 166: Proficiency in managing relationships, building networks, and finding common ground falls under which element of Emotional Intelligence?
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Correct Answer: D. Social Skills. This component deals with adeptness at inducing desirable responses in others, including communication, influence, conflict management, and collaboration. For example, effectively persuading colleagues to support a new initiative.
Question 167: For organisational changes to be effective, what is required regarding the employees’ mindset?
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Correct Answer: B. Employees’ way of thinking must align with the organisational changes. True effectiveness requires people to understand and adapt their perspectives along with structural or strategic shifts. For example, implementing a new customer service strategy requires employees to adopt a customer-first mindset.
Question 168: Can individuals typically accept only organisational changes that relate directly to their specific work tasks?
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Correct Answer: C. No, individuals may need to accept broader organisational changes impacting culture or strategy. Effective organisational adaptation often requires employees to embrace changes beyond their immediate job description, including shifts in mindset or overall direction.
Question 169: Who holds the primary responsibility for initiating individual change within an organisational context?
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Correct Answer: B. The individual employee must take initiative, facilitated by the organisation. While organisations facilitate development, self-renewal and adaptation require individual awareness and effort. For example, an organisation can offer training, but the employee must engage with it.
Question 170: Are an individual’s own perceptions sufficient on their own to bring about personal improvement?
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Correct Answer: C. No, improvement often requires external feedback or objective data alongside self-perception. While self-awareness is key, solely relying on one’s own view can be limiting; external input helps provide a more complete picture for development.
Question 171: How is ‘Personal Efficacy’ best understood?
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Correct Answer: B. As a combination of motivation, self-awareness, proactivity, and action-orientation towards development. It encompasses a broader sense of capability, drive, and belief in one’s ability to improve and achieve goals.
Question 172: What does the concept ‘Locus of Control’ primarily describe?
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Correct Answer: B. An individual’s belief about whether internal or external forces control life events. It reflects whether one attributes outcomes to their own actions (internal) or to factors like luck or others’ actions (external).
Question 173: Which statement accurately reflects the diversity of motivational bases among people?
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Correct Answer: C. Individuals have varied motivations, including achievement, group affiliation, or influence. People work for different reasons, and understanding one’s primary drivers (e.g., personal accomplishment, teamwork, power) is key to self-awareness.
Question 174: In Transactional Analysis, should the ‘Child’ ego state component of personality be eliminated with age and experience?
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Correct Answer: C. No, the Child ego state contributes positive aspects like creativity and intuition, which remain valuable. While behaviour needs to be appropriate, the Child state includes beneficial traits like creativity (‘Little Professor’) that shouldn’t be entirely eliminated.
Question 175: Which ego state in Transactional Analysis is primarily responsible for creativity, curiosity, and emotional reactions?
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Correct Answer: C. Child ego state. This state embodies feelings, impulses, and creativity originating from childhood experiences.
Question 176: What are the main functions associated with the ‘Parent’ ego state in Transactional Analysis?
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Correct Answer: C. Regulating behaviour based on learned rules and nurturing others. The Parent state incorporates messages received from authority figures, guiding behaviour (Critical Parent) and providing care (Nurturing Parent).
Question 177: In the Johari Window model, what does the ‘ARENA’ (Open) quadrant represent?
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Correct Answer: C. Aspects known to both self and others. This is the area of shared knowledge and awareness between an individual and those they interact with.
Question 178: What does the ‘BLIND’ quadrant in the Johari Window signify?
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Correct Answer: D. Aspects known to others but not known to the self. This area contains information about the individual that they are unaware of, but others can see.
Question 179: What does the ‘CLOSED’ (or Hidden) quadrant in the Johari Window represent?
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Correct Answer: B. Aspects known to self but deliberately not revealed to others. This area includes thoughts, feelings, or information that the individual keeps private.
Question 180: Which quadrant of the Johari Window represents aspects unknown to both the individual and to others?
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Correct Answer: D. DARK / UNKNOWN. This area contains potential or aspects of the self that are yet to be discovered by anyone, including the individual themselves.
Question 181: How is ‘Emotional Intelligence’ accurately described?
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Correct Answer: B. As the ability to manage one’s own and others’ emotions effectively. It encompasses self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills.
Question 182: Does Emotional Intelligence include the characteristic of being empathetic?
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Correct Answer: C. Yes, empathy, or understanding others’ emotional states, is a key component. Sensing others’ feelings and perspectives is crucial for effective interpersonal interaction.
Question 183: Is being self-motivated considered a part of Emotional Intelligence?
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Correct Answer: C. Yes, having a passion to work for internal reasons and pursue goals with persistence is included. Achievement drive, commitment, initiative, and optimism are aspects of self-motivation within the EI framework.
Question 184: Is self-regulation considered a component of Emotional Intelligence?
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Correct Answer: C. Yes, the ability to control disruptive impulses and think before acting is a key element. Managing one’s internal states and reactions is fundamental to emotional intelligence.
Question 185: What is ‘Morale’ generally defined as?
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Correct Answer: C. The general mood, confidence, motivation, and willingness of a person or group to perform tasks. Morale is an important mental state reflecting the overall spirit and attitude towards work. For example, a team enthusiastically tackling a challenging project demonstrates high morale.
Question 186: What factors are closely linked to positive employee morale?
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Correct Answer: A. Employee motivation, rewards, and recognition. High morale is often sustained when employees feel motivated and their contributions are acknowledged and rewarded.
Question 187: What is a potential negative consequence of poor employee morale within a business?
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Correct Answer: B. Reduced productivity, high staff turnover, and potentially reduced revenue. Low morale can negatively impact various aspects of business performance, including efficiency and employee retention.
Question 188: Which action is suggested as a ‘morale booster’ involving employee input?
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Correct Answer: C. Welcoming and implementing employee innovations and ideas. Valuing employee contributions by acting on their suggestions can significantly improve morale as staff feel heard and valued.
Question 189: What management practice involves checking if expectations are being met, contributing to focus and potentially better morale?
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Correct Answer: C. The adage ‘inspect what you expect’. Regularly monitoring progress towards clear goals helps maintain focus and clarity, preventing confusion that can lower morale.
Question 190: If negativity in the workplace is based on faulty information or rumours, what is the recommended approach?
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Correct Answer: C. Solve the underlying problem and communicate correct information quickly. When negativity stems from misinformation, prompt clarification and communication are key to resolving the issue.
Question 191: When addressing workplace negativity through problem-solving, who should ideally be included in the process?
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Correct Answer: C. The employees who are closest to the negative situation. Involving affected employees ensures better understanding of the root causes and fosters ownership of the solutions.
Question 192: In simple terms, what does ‘Talent’ represent within Human Capital Management?
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Correct Answer: C. The visible face of Human Resource, embodying competence, commitment, and contribution. Talent refers to the skilled and capable individuals who drive organisational performance.
Question 193: What are the ‘three Cs’ often used at an academic level to describe ‘Talent’?
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Correct Answer: C. Competence, Commitment, and Contribution. These represent the key dimensions of talent: ability (head), action (hands/feet), and engagement (heart).
Question 194: What is ‘Talent Management’ fundamentally concerned with?
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Correct Answer: B. Anticipating required human capital and planning to meet those needs strategically. It involves attracting, developing, retaining, and deploying skilled employees to achieve business goals.
Question 195: Which activity is frequently included within the scope of Talent Management, according to surveys of practitioners?
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Correct Answer: C. Succession planning, assessment, and development. These activities focus on identifying, nurturing, and preparing high-potential employees for future roles, core aspects of talent management.
Question 196: What are the three essential steps typically encompassed by Talent Management strategies?
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Correct Answer: B. Acquiring talent, Developing talent, and Retaining talent. A comprehensive talent strategy addresses the full lifecycle from recruitment through development to ensuring valuable employees stay with the organisation.
Question 197: What is ‘Succession Planning’ primarily concerned with in a business context?
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Correct Answer: B. Identifying and developing new leaders to replace current ones when they leave. It’s a strategic process to ensure leadership continuity by preparing internal candidates for key roles.
Question 198: How does replacement planning differ from broader succession planning or talent-pool management?
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Correct Answer: B. Replacement planning is narrowly focused on identifying specific back-up candidates for given senior roles. Succession planning takes a broader, more developmental approach across the leadership pipeline, while replacement planning is more limited to specific contingency backups.
Question 199: What underlying philosophy is fundamental to an effective succession-management process?
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Correct Answer: C. That top talent must be managed for the greater good of the entire enterprise. Effective succession management requires an organisational perspective, viewing talent as a key asset to be developed strategically for the company’s overall benefit.
Question 200: What is a key objective of implementing succession planning in an organisation?
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Correct Answer: C. To identify individuals with potential and provide them with critical development experiences. A core goal is to build a pipeline of capable internal candidates ready to step into key roles by identifying potential early and nurturing it.
Question 201: What is identified as a crucial area of focus for Management Development Programmes aimed at senior and executive level officers in banks?
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Correct Answer: B. High-ended soft skills like communication, decision-making, and leadership. For senior roles, leadership effectiveness hinges significantly on well-developed soft skills to manage teams, make strategic decisions, and navigate complex organisational dynamics.
Question 202: In the context of Indian Banks, what approach to developing senior management was noted as potentially inadequate?
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Correct Answer: B. Sporadic and ad hoc exposures through random programme deputations. Relying on occasional, unplanned training exposures rather than a structured strategy was seen as insufficient for robust leadership development.
Question 203: Succession planning increases the availability of which type of employees?
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Correct Answer: C. Experienced and capable employees prepared to assume key roles. The process aims to build internal bench strength, ensuring qualified individuals are ready when leadership positions become vacant.
Question 204: Besides identifying potential leaders, what other outcome does succession planning help achieve?
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Correct Answer: A. Countering the difficulty and costs of recruiting externally. By developing internal talent, organisations can reduce reliance on often expensive and time-consuming external searches for key positions.
Question 205: What is the core definition of Human Resource Development (HRD) as a process?
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Correct Answer: B. A continuous and planned process to help employees acquire capabilities and develop potential for organisational and personal growth. HRD aims to enhance employee competencies and foster a supportive organisational culture for overall development.
Question 206: Why is a special focus on Human Resource Development (HRD) considered necessary as a distinct sub-system within HRM?
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Correct Answer: B. To emphasize the development of employees as valuable assets capable of growth, distinct from maintenance or administrative tasks. Focusing on HRD highlights the strategic importance of nurturing human potential for organisational success.
Question 207: What realisation led organisations to understand that the existing workforce can be developed to perform new tasks or adapt to changes?
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Correct Answer: B. Observing that employees have a basic need to grow and can acquire new knowledge and skills over time. Recognising human potential for change and development shifted the focus from merely hiring for specific jobs to nurturing capabilities.
Question 208: How is individual employee performance linked to overall organisational performance within the HRD system?
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Correct Answer: C. Effective performance of individuals in their roles contributes directly to the achievement of organisational goals. The success of the organisation relies on the collective performance of its employees, which HRD aims to enhance.
Question 209: Which of the following are considered key sub-systems within the HRD framework?
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Correct Answer: C. Learning & Development, Performance & Potential Appraisal, Career Planning, OD, HRIS, Talent Management & Succession Planning. These systems work together to foster employee and organisational growth.
Question 210: Why is the statement “Human beings are learning beings” relevant to HRD?
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Correct Answer: B. It supports the HRD premise that employees have the capacity and often the desire to learn and develop throughout their careers. This inherent capacity justifies organisational investment in learning opportunities.
Question 211: Should organisations provide learning opportunities primarily because human beings have a desire to learn?
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Correct Answer: C. Yes, aligning organisational learning opportunities with employees’ natural need for growth can enhance motivation and commitment. Meeting this intrinsic need contributes to both individual satisfaction and organisational benefit.
Question 212: Why is ‘Pedagogy’ (child-centric teaching methods) often considered unsuitable for adult learners?
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Correct Answer: B. Because Pedagogy assumes a passive learner, whereas adults often learn best through active inquiry and relating to experience (Andragogy). Adult learning principles emphasize self-direction and relevance.
Question 213: What is a key difference between adult learning (Andragogy) and child learning (Pedagogy)?
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Correct Answer: C. Adults are often motivated internally and value relevance, while child learning is more directed by external authority. Principles like self-direction, experience-based learning, and problem-centered orientation differentiate adult learning.
Question 214: What are the essential stages involved in establishing a systematic Learning and Development system?
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Correct Answer: B. Training Need Analysis, Planning, Conduct/Design, Evaluation, Trainer Selection/Development. This systematic approach ensures training is planned, delivered, and assessed effectively.
Question 215: Why is a systematic approach considered necessary for organising training within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: B. To ensure training activities are aligned with objectives, resources are used effectively, and outcomes can be evaluated. A systematic approach brings structure, purpose, and accountability to the training function.
Question 216: What is Training Need Analysis (TNA)?
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Correct Answer: C. The systematic process of identifying gaps between required and existing competencies to determine training requirements. TNA is the diagnostic first step to ensure training addresses actual needs.
Question 217: Which category of training methodology involves techniques like case studies, role plays, and simulation games?
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Correct Answer: B. Experiential and participative methods. These methods actively involve learners in applying concepts or practicing skills, moving beyond passive listening.
Question 218: What is the primary purpose of ‘Training’ versus ‘Development’ and ‘Education’ in Nadler’s classification?
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Correct Answer: C. Training: Present job; Education: Identified future job; Development: General growth. Distinguishing these helps clarify objectives and tailor learning interventions appropriately.
Question 219: What are the four commonly discussed levels for evaluating training effectiveness?
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Correct Answer: C. Reaction, Learning, Behaviour, Functioning/Results. This model (similar to Kirkpatrick’s) provides a framework for assessing training impact at different levels.
Question 220: What constitutes a significant challenge in training evaluation, particularly at the higher levels?
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Correct Answer: C. Isolating the impact of training on behaviour and organisational results from other influencing factors can be difficult. While lower levels are easier to measure, attributing changes in job performance or business outcomes solely to training is complex.
Question 221: Why is having the ‘right’ attitude considered significant for employees and organisations?
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Correct Answer: B. Positive attitudes generally correlate with better work behaviour, adaptability, and performance, benefiting both the individual and the organisation. Attitudes shape behaviour and influence how employees engage with their work and environment.
Question 222: Which method can be used to help change the attitude of a dissatisfied staff member?
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Correct Answer: B. Providing new information, using moderate fear arousal (if applicable), resolving discrepancies, influence of peers/leaders, or co-opting them into the process. Various techniques can be employed, often involving communication, involvement, or addressing underlying beliefs.
Question 223: Who holds responsibility for an individual’s career development within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: D. It’s often a shared responsibility between the organisation (providing opportunities/paths) and the individual (effort, choices). While individuals drive their careers, organisations play a key role in facilitating growth through planning and opportunities.
Question 224: How can concepts related to ‘Life Stages’ (like Erikson’s) and ‘Transitions’ (like Levinson’s) be applied to understanding organisational careers?
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Correct Answer: B. They indicate that individuals have predictable phases of development, concerns, and potential crises within their work lives, similar to life stages. Understanding these stages helps organisations tailor career support and development.
Question 225: Briefly describe the four ‘Career Roles’ identified by Dalton, Thompson, and Price.
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Correct Answer: C. Apprentice, Colleague, Mentor, Sponsor. These roles represent distinct stages in career progression, each with different tasks, relationships, and developmental requirements.
Question 226: What is meant by the concept of ‘multiple careers’ within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: B. The existence of distinct, specialised career paths within different functions (e.g., Finance, IT, HR) in the same organisation. Increased specialisation allows individuals to build expertise and progress within various functional tracks.
Question 227: Why is it important for individuals to appreciate the need for personal change and self-development in today’s environment?
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Correct Answer: B. To effectively adapt to changing organisational strategies, technologies, and environments, ensuring continued relevance and growth. Self-renewal is crucial for individuals to navigate dynamic work contexts successfully.
Question 228: What are some key aspects individuals need to understand about themselves for self-development?
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Correct Answer: B. Their motivational patterns, locus of control, power bases, interpersonal needs/styles, and emotional intelligence. Understanding these internal factors provides a foundation for personal growth.
Question 229: What is the relevance of understanding interpersonal interactions (like Transactional Analysis or Interpersonal Needs) in an organisational context?
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Correct Answer: B. It helps individuals improve communication, collaboration, and influencing skills, leading to more effective working relationships. Understanding how interactions work aids in navigating organisational dynamics successfully.
Question 230: What is ‘Personal Efficacy’?
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Correct Answer: B. An individual’s belief in their capacity to mobilise resources and take action to succeed in specific situations; linked to motivation and self-awareness. It reflects self-belief and a proactive orientation towards achieving goals.
Question 231: Discuss the significance of Emotional Intelligence (EI).
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Correct Answer: B. EI enhances self-management, interpersonal relationships, and leadership effectiveness, contributing significantly to personal and professional success. Abilities like self-awareness, empathy, and social skills are critical in navigating the human aspects of work.
Question 232: What are the different types of power bases managers might use (e.g., French & Raven)?
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Correct Answer: B. Powers such as Coercive, Legitimate, Reward, Referent, and Expert power. Managers draw on various sources of influence, including position, ability to punish/reward, expertise, and interpersonal appeal.
Question 233: Describe the purpose and process of career management within an organisation.
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Correct Answer: B. Purpose: Align individual aspirations with organisational opportunities; Process: Involves planning paths, identifying criteria, providing feedback, and facilitating transitions. It’s a systematic HRD effort supporting employee progression.
Question 234: What are considered important elements for a successful Talent Management system?
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Correct Answer: B. Attracting, onboarding, developing (e.g., career paths, talent pools), and retaining talent. A holistic approach covering the entire talent lifecycle is needed for success.
Question 235: Discuss the significance and process of succession planning.
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Correct Answer: A. Significance: Ensures leadership continuity; Process: Identify key roles, identify potential successors, develop candidates. It’s a strategic process vital for organisational stability and future leadership.