CAIIB BRBL Module A UNIT 5 MCQ – Public sector banks, private sector banks, regional rural banks, differentiated banks, co-operative banks, and local area banks.
Question 1: Under which type of legal framework are the State Bank of India, Nationalized Banks, and Regional Rural Banks primarily established in India?
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Correct Answer: C. Special Statutes enacted by Parliament. Public sector banks like SBI, Nationalized banks, and RRBs derive their existence and operational guidelines from specific Acts passed by the Parliament, distinct from the general company law or solely the Banking Regulation Act.
Question 2: Who holds the majority ownership stake in the State Bank of India, Nationalized Banks, and Regional Rural Banks?
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Correct Answer: D. Government of India. These public sector banking institutions are characterized by the fact that the central government maintains the controlling interest or majority shareholding.
Question 3: How does the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 apply to public sector banks like SBI and Nationalized Banks?
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Correct Answer: B. It applies only in a limited manner, with some provisions being inapplicable. While these banks must adhere to banking regulations, their specific founding statutes take precedence in certain areas, making some parts of the Banking Regulation Act not applicable to them.
Question 4: What distinguishes Private Sector Banks from Public Sector Banks in terms of ownership?
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Correct Answer: B. Private Sector Banks have the majority stake held by private individuals or entities. The defining feature of a Private Sector Bank is that the controlling ownership rests with private parties, unlike Public Sector Banks where the government holds the majority stake.
Question 5: Under which primary legislation were most of the larger Private Sector Banks established, particularly after the 1990s?
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Correct Answer: C. Companies Act. Most significant private banks established post-liberalization were incorporated under the framework of the Companies Act, alongside adherence to the Banking Regulation Act.
Question 6: If a co-operative bank operates across multiple states in India, which law governs its creation and registration?
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Correct Answer: C. The Central Act related to Co-operative Societies (Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act). Co-operative banks with operations extending beyond a single state fall under the jurisdiction of the central legislation governing multi-state co-operative entities.
Question 7: Which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, outlines the modified applicability of the Act to co-operative banks?
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Correct Answer: D. Section 56. This specific section within the Banking Regulation Act details how its provisions are adapted and applied to banks operating under the co-operative structure.
Question 8: What is the defining characteristic of a ‘Differentiated Bank’?
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Correct Answer: C. It caters to the needs of a specific sector or demographic segment. Differentiated banks are specialized institutions focusing on particular niches within the banking market, serving specific societal groups or population segments.
Question 9: Which of the following are provided as examples of Differentiated Banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Fintech Banks, Digital Banks, Small Finance Banks, and Payments Banks. These types of banks represent the modern concept of differentiated banking, focusing on specific services or customer bases, often leveraging technology.
Question 10: What was the primary purpose for the establishment of Local Area Banks?
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Correct Answer: B. To pool and mobilize rural savings for local economic development credit. Local Area Banks were conceived to gather savings from rural areas and channel these funds back into the same local communities as loans for economic growth.
Question 11: Under which legislative act was the State Bank of India (SBI) formally established?
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Correct Answer: C. State Bank of India Act, 1955. This specific Act led to the creation of SBI, taking over the undertaking of the Imperial Bank.
Question 12: What legal status does the State Bank of India hold, ensuring its continuous existence?
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Correct Answer: C. Body Corporate with perpetual succession. SBI is constituted as a body corporate, meaning it has a separate legal identity and can continue indefinitely, irrespective of changes in membership or management.
Question 13: Unless specifically altered by the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank, what is the maximum voting right percentage a shareholder (other than the Government of India) can exercise in the State Bank of India?
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Correct Answer: C. Ten per cent. The SBI Act imposes a default restriction, limiting the voting power of individual shareholders (excluding the government) to a maximum of ten per cent of the total voting rights.
Question 14: Which body is entrusted with the superintendence and direction of the affairs of the State Bank of India?
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Correct Answer: C. The Central Board of the State Bank. The overall management and strategic direction of SBI rests with its Central Board.
Question 16: Whose consultation and sanction are required for the Central Board of the State Bank of India to make regulations?
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Correct Answer: C. Consultation with the Reserve Bank and previous sanction of the Central Government. Making regulations requires the SBI Board to consult with the RBI and obtain prior approval from the Central Government.
Question 17: What is the maximum initial term for which the Chairman and Managing Directors of the State Bank of India can be appointed?
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Correct Answer: C. Five years. The initial appointment tenure for the top leadership positions like Chairman and MDs in SBI is capped at five years, although reappointment is possible.
Question 18: At which places does the State Bank of India act as an agent of the Reserve Bank of India for transacting Government business?
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Correct Answer: D. At places where SBI has a branch and RBI does not have a branch, if required by RBI. SBI assumes the agency role for RBI’s government transactions specifically in locations where RBI lacks its own presence but SBI operates.
Question 19: Besides acting as RBI’s agent, what core business activity is the State Bank of India permitted to undertake as defined in Section 5(b) of the Banking Regulation Act?
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Correct Answer: C. The business of banking. SBI is authorized to conduct the fundamental activities defined as ‘banking’ under the Banking Regulation Act, alongside other specified financial services.
Question 20: By which date must the State Bank of India typically close its books and balance its accounts each year?
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Correct Answer: B. 31st March. Unless otherwise specified by the Central Government, the standard financial year-end for SBI, requiring closure of accounts, is March 31st.
Question 21: To whom must the State Bank of India furnish its audited balance sheet, profit and loss account, and auditors’ report within three months of the closing date?
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Correct Answer: D. To both the Central Government and the Reserve Bank of India. SBI is required to submit its key annual financial statements and audit reports to both the central government and the central bank.
Question 22: Who appoints the auditors for the State Bank of India?
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Correct Answer: C. The State Bank itself, with the previous approval of the Reserve Bank. While SBI makes the appointment, it requires prior consent from the RBI.
Question 23: Effective from which date did the merger of five associate banks (State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur, Hyderabad, Travancore, Mysore, Patiala) and the Bharatiya Mahila Bank with the State Bank of India take place?
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Correct Answer: C. 1st April 2017. This date marks the official completion of the merger, consolidating these entities into the State Bank of India.
Question 24: What is the primary stated objective behind the establishment of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)?
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Correct Answer: C. To develop the rural economy by providing credit facilities. RRBs were specifically created to boost rural development through credit and financial services targeted at agriculture, rural trade, industry, and small entrepreneurs.
Question 26: How is the area of operation for a Regional Rural Bank generally defined?
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Correct Answer: C. A compact area comprising a few districts with homogeneous agro-climatic conditions. RRBs typically operate within a limited, geographically defined rural region, usually spanning a few districts sharing similar agricultural and environmental characteristics.
Question 27: Who appoints the Chairman of a Regional Rural Bank (RRB)?
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Correct Answer: C. The Sponsor Bank, in consultation with NABARD (or Central Govt in other cases). The bank that sponsors the RRB is responsible for appointing the Chairman, typically after consulting with NABARD.
Question 28: Which condition related to meeting attendance can lead to a director vacating their office on the board of a Regional Rural Bank?
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Correct Answer: C. Absence from three consecutive meetings without leave from the board. Continuous absence from three board meetings without prior permission results in the disqualification and removal of an RRB director.
Question 29: Who is primarily responsible for monitoring the progress of Regional Rural Banks through methods like inspection and internal audit?
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Correct Answer: C. The Sponsor Bank. The sponsoring commercial bank plays a key role in overseeing the performance and functioning of the RRB it has sponsored.
Question 30: What is the stated primary purpose for the amalgamation and consolidation of Regional Rural Banks that has been occurring?
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Correct Answer: C. To minimize overheads, optimize technology use, enhance capital base and area of operation. The consolidation aims to create stronger, more efficient RRBs by reducing costs, improving technology adoption, increasing capital and operational reach, and enhancing their lending capacity.
Question 31: What common name is given to the Public Sector Banks, other than the State Bank of India, that were established through Acts in 1970 and 1980 transferring ownership from private entities?
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Correct Answer: C. Nationalized Banks. These banks became public sector entities when the government acquired existing private banks through specific legislation known as the Bank Nationalization Acts.
Question 32: What legislative actions led to the formation of the ‘Nationalized Banks’ in India?
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Correct Answer: C. The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Acts of 1970 and 1980. These specific Acts facilitated the government takeover and establishment of Nationalized Banks.
Question 33: Immediately following nationalization, who held the entire paid-up capital of the newly formed Nationalized Banks?
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Correct Answer: D. The Central Government. At the point of nationalization, the ownership of these banks was fully transferred to the Central Government.
Question 34: What is the minimum percentage of equity that the Central Government is statutorily required to hold in Nationalized Banks at all times?
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Correct Answer: C. 51 per cent. Legislation mandates that the Central Government must always retain a majority stake, ensuring continued public sector control.
Question 35: What is the maximum percentage of total voting rights that an equity shareholder, other than the Central Government, can typically exercise in a Nationalized Bank?
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Correct Answer: A. One per cent. To maintain dispersed shareholding influence apart from the government, individual non-government shareholders’ voting power is restricted.
Question 36: What type of legal entity is a Nationalized Bank constituted as under the relevant statutes?
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Correct Answer: C. A body corporate with perpetual succession. Like SBI, Nationalized Banks are established as distinct legal entities that can exist indefinitely and conduct business in their own name.
Question 37: Which body holds the responsibility for the general superintendence, direction, and management of the affairs of a Nationalized Bank?
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Correct Answer: C. The Board of Directors of the bank. The overall governance and operational management of a Nationalized Bank are vested in its Board.
Question 38: In addition to guidance from the Reserve Bank of India, whose directions or instructions may aid the Board of a Nationalized Bank in its management?
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Correct Answer: B. The Central Government. The Board operates under the framework set by law and can also be guided by instructions issued by the Central Government, particularly on policy matters.
Question 39: Who is empowered to make specific ‘schemes’ for carrying out the provisions of the Nationalization Acts, and whose consultation is required for this?
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Correct Answer: C. The Central Government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India. Section 9 of the Acts grants the Central Government the power to create detailed operational schemes, requiring consultation with the RBI.
Question 40: What must happen to a scheme framed under Section 9 of the Nationalization Acts before it becomes binding?
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Correct Answer: C. It must be laid before the Parliament. Such schemes require parliamentary oversight and become legally binding once presented and approved as per parliamentary procedure.
Question 41: Which specific schemes provide detailed provisions for the constitution of the board, appointment of directors, and conduct of meetings in Nationalized Banks?
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Correct Answer: C. The Nationalized Banks (Management and Miscellaneous Provisions) Schemes, 1970 and 1980. These government-framed schemes elaborate on the management structure and operational rules for the boards of Nationalized Banks.
Question 42: Which director category on the board of a Nationalized Bank represents the interests of the employees?
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Correct Answer: C. Director representing workmen employees and a director representing officer employees. The board composition includes specific representation for both workmen and officer staff categories.
Question 43: What professional qualification and minimum experience are required for the director nominated to the board of a Nationalized Bank in consultation with the Reserve Bank under that specific category?
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Correct Answer: B. Chartered Accountant with not less than fifteen years’ experience. One directorship position nominated by the government requires this specific professional background and experience level, with RBI consultation.
Question 44: What is the maximum number of directors that shareholders (other than the Central Government) can elect to the board of a Nationalized Bank?
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Correct Answer: B. Three. The number of directors elected by public shareholders is capped, with the actual number depending on the percentage of public shareholding in the bank.
Question 45: What criteria, encompassing aspects like track record and integrity, must a candidate meet to be considered eligible for election as a director on the board of a Nationalized Bank?
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Correct Answer: C. ‘Fit and Proper’ criteria. Prospective directors are assessed based on established standards regarding their suitability, background, and ethical standing to ensure sound governance.
Question 46: According to tightened criteria specified by the Reserve Bank of India, individuals holding which positions are generally considered ineligible for appointment to the boards of Public Sector Banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Members of Parliament, state legislatures, and local governments. To avoid potential conflicts of interest, active members of legislative bodies or local governments are typically barred from PSB directorships under these guidelines.
Question 47: What is the minimum frequency with which the Board of a Nationalized Bank should ordinarily hold its meetings in a year?
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Correct Answer: C. At least six times in a year. The management schemes prescribe a minimum number of board meetings annually, ensuring regular oversight.
Question 48: What is the standard minimum notice period required to be given for convening a meeting of the Board of a Nationalized Bank?
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Correct Answer: C. Fifteen days. Directors must ordinarily receive at least fifteen days’ advance notice before a scheduled board meeting.
Question 49: What constitutes the quorum for a meeting of the Board of Directors in a Nationalized Bank?
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Correct Answer: B. One-third of the number of directors holding office on that day. A minimum number of directors, calculated as one-third of the current board strength, must be present for the meeting to proceed legally.
Question 50: Besides the Management Committee, which other key committee with powers delegated by the Board to handle credit proposals is specifically mentioned in the Nationalized Banks (Management and Miscellaneous Provisions) Schemes?
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Correct Answer: C. Credit Approval Committee. This committee is explicitly named alongside the Management Committee as having board-delegated authority, particularly concerning the sanctioning of loans.
Question 51: Which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, explicitly enumerates the specific provisions of that Act that are applicable to the State Bank of India, Nationalized Banks, and Regional Rural Banks?
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Correct Answer: D. Section 51. This section serves as the reference point within the Banking Regulation Act to determine the extent of its applicability to India’s public sector banks.
Question 52: Why are certain sections of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, not applicable to public sector banks like SBI and Nationalized Banks?
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Correct Answer: B. Because their specific establishing Acts (like the SBI Act or Nationalization Acts) contain provisions that may modify or override those sections. The principle of specific legislation prevailing over general legislation means the banks’ own statutes take precedence where provisions overlap or conflict.
Question 53: Which applicable section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, prohibits the employment of Managing Agents and places restrictions on certain other forms of employment in public sector banks?
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Correct Answer: A. Section 10. This provision, applicable to PSBs, regulates employment practices, specifically banning managing agencies and restricting certain types of employee roles or remuneration.
Question 54: What financial practices are restricted by Sections 13 to 15 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, as applicable to public sector banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Excessive commission on share sales, charges on unpaid capital, and dividend payments under certain conditions. These sections impose controls on specific financial activities like share issuance costs and dividend distribution.
Question 55: Which applicable section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, mandates the creation and maintenance of a Reserve Fund by public sector banks?
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Correct Answer: B. Section 17. This section ensures that public sector banks build up reserves by transferring a portion of their profits to a statutory reserve fund.
Question 56: What areas are regulated by Sections 19 to 21A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, for public sector banks?
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Correct Answer: B. Restrictions on the nature of subsidiary companies and RBI’s power to control advances. These sections limit the types of subsidiaries banks can have and empower the RBI to regulate lending activities.
Question 57: Sections 23 to 28 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, applicable to public sector banks, primarily deal with restrictions concerning what aspect of banking operations?
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Correct Answer: C. Opening new places of business, transferring existing ones, and maintenance of required asset percentages. These provisions govern branch network expansion and ensure banks maintain sufficient liquid assets.
Question 58: Which applicable section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, specifies the requirements for the preparation and format of Accounts and Balance Sheets for public sector banks?
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Correct Answer: B. Section 29 (excluding sub-section 3). This section mandates the structure and content of the primary financial statements that public sector banks must prepare.
Question 59: What specific type of audit is addressed in parts of Section 30 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, applicable to public sector banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Special Audit ordered by RBI. Applicable portions of Section 30 grant RBI the power to order a special audit of a bank under certain circumstances.
Question 60: What obligation is imposed on public sector banks by Section 31 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
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Correct Answer: C. To submit various returns and information to the Reserve Bank of India. This section mandates the regular reporting of specified data by banks to the regulator.
Question 61: Which power does Section 35 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, grant to the Reserve Bank of India concerning public sector banks?
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Correct Answer: B. Power to conduct inspections. This key supervisory section allows the RBI to examine the books and accounts and overall affairs of public sector banks.
Question 63: Section 35AA of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, empowers the Central Government to authorize the Reserve Bank of India for what specific purpose?
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Correct Answer: B. To issue directions to banks to initiate the insolvency resolution process for stressed assets. This section provides a mechanism, involving both the government and RBI, to address defaults through the insolvency framework.
Question 64: What power does Section 35AB of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, grant to the Reserve Bank of India?
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Correct Answer: B. Power to issue directions concerning the resolution of stressed assets. Complementing 35AA, this section allows RBI to issue specific instructions regarding the management and resolution of non-performing assets.
Question 65: Which section, applicable to public sector banks (with one exception), outlines various general powers of the Reserve Bank of India, such as cautioning banks or assisting them?
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Correct Answer: B. Section 36 (except sub-section 1(d)). This section details several supervisory and regulatory powers vested in the RBI to maintain banking system stability.
Question 66: What range of customer-related matters are covered under Sections 45Y to 45ZF of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, applicable to public sector banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Rules for record preservation, return of paid instruments, and nomination facilities for deposits/lockers. These sections deal with operational aspects concerning customer accounts, instruments, and succession planning for account holders.
Question 67: Sections 46 to 48 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, applicable to public sector banks, primarily deal with which aspect of regulation?
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Correct Answer: C. Penalties, cognizance of offences, RBI’s power to impose penalties, and application of fines. These sections provide the legal framework for enforcing compliance by outlining punishments for violations.
Question 68: According to Section 50 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, what happens to claims for compensation against the government or RBI for losses incurred due to the Act’s operation?
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Correct Answer: C. Such claims are barred. This section protects the regulatory authorities from legal claims arising directly from the implementation of the Act’s provisions.
Question 69: Which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, grants the Central Government the power to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the Act?
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Correct Answer: D. Section 52. This section empowers the Central Government to frame necessary rules to supplement the provisions contained within the Banking Regulation Act.
Question 70: What power does Section 53 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, provide to the Central Government?
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Correct Answer: C. Power to exempt specific banks or situations from certain provisions of the Act. This section allows the government flexibility to grant exemptions from the Act’s requirements in specific, justified cases.
Question 71: Overall, how is the application of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, characterized in relation to public sector banks like SBI, Nationalized Banks, and RRBs?
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Correct Answer: C. Applicable in a limited way as specified by Section 51, due to overriding provisions in their own statutes. The applicability is selective, determined by Section 51 and the principle that the specific laws establishing these banks can override general banking law.
Question 71: What government policy initiative prompted amendments to the statutes governing public sector banks, such as the State Bank of India Act and the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Acts?
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Correct Answer: C. Policy to dilute the government’s shareholding in these banks. Amendments were made to facilitate reduction in government ownership and allow for public participation in the equity of these banks.
Question 72: What change was made to the face value of State Bank of India shares by the State Bank of India (Amendment) Act, 1993?
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Correct Answer: B. Decreased from ₹100 to ₹10. This amendment reduced the nominal value of each SBI share, making them more accessible to smaller investors.
Question 73: How did the State Bank of India (Amendment) Act, 1993, modify the voting rights restriction for shareholders (other than the government)?
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Correct Answer: B. Changed the limit from a maximum of 200 shares to a maximum of ten per cent of the issued capital. The amendment shifted the basis of the voting restriction from a fixed number of shares to a percentage of the total capital.
Question 74: What was the primary purpose of the amendments made in 1994 and 1995 to the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Acts of 1970/1980?
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Correct Answer: C. To facilitate public holding of shares in nationalized banks. These amendments were aimed at enabling nationalized banks to issue shares to the public and list on stock exchanges.
Question 75: What initial authorized capital structure (amount and share value) was provided for nationalized banks through the 1994/1995 amendments?
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Correct Answer: B. ₹1,500 crore, divided into shares of ₹10 each. The amendments set an initial authorized capital base with a specific share denomination.
Question 76: What significant change regarding profit distribution was introduced for Nationalized Banks by amending Section 10A of the relevant Acts?
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Correct Answer: B. Banks were allowed to declare dividends to shareholders. Previously, profits were primarily transferred to the government; this amendment permitted distribution to all shareholders.
Question 77: Which factor was NOT cited as a primary reason driving the mega-merger of public sector banks announced in August 2019?
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Correct Answer: C. Desire to increase the number of public sector banks. The explicit goal was to reduce the number of PSBs to create fewer, larger, and stronger banks.
Question 78: Effective from which date did the large-scale merger of ten public sector banks into four anchor banks come into force?
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Correct Answer: C. 1st April 2020. This date marks the official implementation of the announced PSB mergers.
Question 79: Into which anchor bank were Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) and United Bank of India merged?
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Correct Answer: D. Punjab National Bank (PNB). PNB became the anchor bank absorbing OBC and United Bank of India in this consolidation.
Question 80: Following the major mergers effective from April 2020, how many Public Sector Banks remained operational in India?
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Correct Answer: B. 12. The consolidation process reduced the total count of PSBs to twelve.
Question 81: If a co-operative bank’s operations are confined solely within the boundaries of a single state, which law primarily governs its registration and constitution?
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Correct Answer: C. The State law governing co-operative societies in that particular state. Co-operative entities operating within one state are subject to that state’s specific co-operative legislation for formation and internal governance.
Question 82: Which central legislation governs the registration and constitution of co-operative banks that operate in more than one state?
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Correct Answer: C. The Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act. Co-operative banks with interstate operations fall under this central Act designed for entities operating across state borders.
Question 83: Which legislation specifically adapted the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, making its provisions (with modifications) applicable to co-operative societies engaged in banking?
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Correct Answer: B. The Banking Laws (Application to Co-operative Societies) Act, 1965. This Act formally extended the regulatory framework of the BR Act to cover co-operative banks.
Question 84: According to the Banking Regulation Act (as applicable to co-operative societies), which entities are included within the definition of a ‘co-operative bank’?
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Correct Answer: C. State Co-operative Banks, Central Co-operative Banks, and Primary Co-operative Banks. The definition specifically encompasses these three tiers of the co-operative banking structure.
Question 85: Which condition is NOT required for a co-operative society (other than a primary agricultural credit society) to be classified as a ‘Primary Co-operative Bank’?
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Correct Answer: C. Its byelaws must permit admission of any other co-operative society as a member. The definition actually requires that the byelaws do not permit membership of other co-operative societies (with specific exceptions related to state funding).
Question 86: What is the primary role of a ‘State Co-operative Bank’ within the co-operative banking structure?
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Correct Answer: B. To act as the principal co-operative society in a state, mainly financing other co-operative societies. It serves as the apex co-operative bank at the state level, channeling funds to lower tiers.
Question 87: What defines a ‘Central Co-operative Bank’?
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Correct Answer: B. The principal co-operative society in a district, mainly funding other co-operative societies within that district. It operates at the district level, bridging the state apex bank and primary societies.
Question 88: Which type of co-operative society is explicitly exempt from the rule prohibiting the use of words like ‘bank’, ‘banker’, or ‘banking’ in its name?
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Correct Answer: C. Primary credit societies. While generally restricted, primary credit societies are specifically allowed an exemption from this naming convention.
Question 89: What is the minimum amount of paid-up capital and reserves required for a co-operative bank to commence or carry on banking business, as per Section 11 of the BR Act (as applicable)?
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Correct Answer: B. ₹1 lakh. Co-operative banks must meet this minimum capital requirement to be eligible to operate.
Question 90: Which co-operative banks are required to maintain Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) as per Section 42 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934?
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Correct Answer: D. Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks and scheduled State Co-operative Banks. Co-operative banks included in the RBI Act’s Second Schedule follow the standard CRR norms specified therein, while others follow Section 18 of the BR Act.
Question 91: Under Section 20 of the BR Act (as applicable), are co-operative banks permitted to grant loans and advances on the security of their own shares?
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Correct Answer: C. No, this practice is prohibited. Granting loans secured by the bank’s own shares is explicitly forbidden for co-operative banks.
Question 92: What type of loans or advances to directors are generally prohibited for co-operative banks under Section 20 of the BR Act (as applicable)?
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Correct Answer: B. Unsecured loans or advances. The Act places restrictions specifically on providing unsecured credit facilities to directors and related entities.
Question 93: Since October 2003, what stance has the Reserve Bank of India taken regarding co-operative banks granting loans (secured or unsecured) to their directors or directors’ relatives?
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Correct Answer: C. Prohibited such financial accommodation. RBI issued directives explicitly forbidding co-operative banks from providing loans or other financial facilities to their directors or relatives to prevent conflicts of interest.
Question 94: Which entity is primarily responsible for issuing licenses to co-operative societies wishing to carry on banking business in India?
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Correct Answer: D. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Under Section 22 of the BR Act (as applicable), RBI is the licensing authority for co-operative banks.
Question 95: Are primary credit societies required to obtain a license from the Reserve Bank of India to operate?
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Correct Answer: B. No, they are exempt from this requirement. The licensing requirement under Section 22 specifically excludes primary credit societies.
Question 96: For a co-operative bank (other than a primary co-operative bank) to open a new branch, through which institution must the application typically be routed, besides sending an advance copy to RBI?
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Correct Answer: C. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Applications from state and central co-operative banks for branch opening are normally channeled through NABARD.
Question 97: According to Section 24(2A) of the BR Act (as applicable), co-operative banks must maintain liquid assets equivalent to what percentage range of their demand and time liabilities, as stipulated by RBI?
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Correct Answer: C. Not less than 25% and up to 40%. This section requires maintenance of additional liquid assets, with the specific percentage within this range determined by RBI notification.
Question 98: In which schedule of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, are the prescribed forms for the Balance Sheet and Profit & Loss Account of co-operative banks set out?
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Correct Answer: C. Third Schedule. Co-operative banks must prepare their annual financial statements adhering to the formats provided in this schedule.
Question 99: Besides the Reserve Bank of India, to which other institution must State Co-operative Banks and Central Co-operative Banks submit copies of their annual accounts and auditor’s report?
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Correct Answer: C. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Due to its supervisory role over these tiers, NABARD also receives copies of their financial reports.
Question 100: Under the DICGC Act, 1961, what happens to the registration of an insured co-operative bank if its license to carry on banking business is cancelled by the RBI?
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Correct Answer: C. The registration may be cancelled. Cancellation of the banking license is one of the specified grounds upon which DICGC can de-register an insured co-operative bank.
Question 101: For a co-operative bank to be considered an ‘Eligible Co-operative Bank’ under the DICGC Act, what crucial provision regarding RBI’s authority must be present in the law governing that bank?
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Correct Answer: B. RBI’s prior sanction is required for winding up orders or schemes of arrangement/amalgamation. This ensures RBI oversight in major restructuring or dissolution events for eligibility under deposit insurance.
Question 102: According to Section 13D of the DICGC Act, which failure by a co-operative bank can lead the RBI to require its winding up?
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Correct Answer: B. Failure to meet the minimum paid-up capital and reserve requirements specified in Section 11 of the BR Act. Inadequate capitalisation is a specific ground upon which RBI can initiate winding-up proceedings via the DICGC Act.
Question 103: Under what circumstance related to depositor demands is a co-operative bank deemed ‘unable to pay its debts’ as per the DICGC Act?
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Correct Answer: B. If it refuses to meet a lawful demand within two working days (if RBI office present) or five working days (if elsewhere), and RBI certifies this inability. This provides a specific, time-bound test for determining insolvency based on failure to meet payment obligations.
Question 104: Which Act ensures that deposits in eligible co-operative banks are insured up to a certain limit?
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Correct Answer: C. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961. This Act establishes the framework for deposit insurance coverage, which extends to eligible co-operative banks.
Question 105: Can the Reserve Bank of India direct the supersession of the managing committee of an eligible co-operative bank under the provisions required by the DICGC Act?
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Correct Answer: B. Yes, if required in the public interest or to protect depositors, for a period up to five years. The law governing an eligible co-operative bank must empower RBI to supersede the board under specific circumstances to ensure its eligibility for deposit insurance.
Question 106: The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, primarily aimed to bring which category of banks under more direct supervision of the Reserve Bank of India?
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Correct Answer: C. Co-operative Banks (specifically Urban and Multi-State Co-operative Banks). The amendment was largely driven by concerns over the financial health and governance of co-operative banks, leading to enhanced RBI oversight.
Question 107: What power did the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, grant to the RBI concerning the restructuring of banks, including co-operative banks?
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Correct Answer: B. Power to initiate a scheme for reconstruction or amalgamation. The amendment empowered RBI to formulate schemes for merging or restructuring banks facing financial difficulties.
Question 108: According to the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, what restriction applies to a bank placed under moratorium by the RBI?
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Correct Answer: B. It cannot grant any loans or make investments in credit instruments. During a moratorium period imposed by RBI, the bank’s lending and investment activities are frozen to conserve resources.
Question 109: Subject to prior RBI approval, what types of shares or securities were co-operative banks explicitly allowed to issue under the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020?
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Correct Answer: C. Equity, preference, or special shares, and unsecured debentures/bonds (with maturity ≥ 10 years). The amendment provided co-operative banks with more avenues to raise capital, contingent on RBI approval.
Question 110: What stipulation did the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, make regarding the rights of individuals demanding payment towards the surrender of shares issued by a co-operative bank?
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Correct Answer: C. No person is entitled to demand such payment. This provision aimed to protect the capital base of co-operative banks by preventing members from withdrawing their share capital on demand.
Question 111: The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, granted RBI the power to supersede the board of directors of which specific type of co-operative bank under certain conditions?
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Correct Answer: C. Multi-State Co-operative Banks. The amendment gave RBI specific authority to supersede the boards of co-operative banks operating across multiple states, for reasons like public interest or depositor protection.
Question 112: What is the defining characteristic regarding the ownership structure of Private Sector Banks in India?
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Correct Answer: C. The majority stake is held by private entities or individuals. Unlike public sector banks, control in private sector banks rests with non-governmental shareholders.
Question 113: Under which primary legislation are most Private Sector Banks in India typically incorporated?
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Correct Answer: D. Companies Act (1956 or 2013). Private banks are generally established as companies under the relevant Companies Act, alongside adhering to banking specific laws.
Question 114: Into which two broad categories are Private Sector Banks in India often classified based on their establishment timeline?
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Correct Answer: C. Old Private Sector Banks (pre-1968) and New Private Sector Banks (post-1990s). This classification distinguishes between banks existing before major nationalization phases and those licensed during the liberalization era.
Question 115: Approximately how many private sector banks were stated to be operational in India as per the data provided for 31st March 2021 in the source material?
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Correct Answer: B. 21. The provided text listed 21 active private sector banks based on data from March 2021.
Question 116: What factor contributed significantly to the success of many New Private Sector Banks established after the 1990s?
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Correct Answer: B. Freedom from legacy issues and effective use of advanced technology. Starting fresh allowed these banks to adopt modern technology and efficient practices, catering effectively to clients.
Question 117: Why is a diverse range of financial institutions considered necessary for a dynamic and growth-oriented economy like India’s?
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Correct Answer: C. To cater to the varied demands of different segments of the economy effectively. A diverse financial system with specialized institutions can better meet the specific needs of various sectors and population groups.
Question 118: How are ‘Differentiated Banks’ generally defined?
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Correct Answer: C. Banks functioning in a niche segment, offering limited services or operating under different regulations. They differ from universal banks by specializing in certain areas, customer segments, or regulatory frameworks.
Question 119: Which committee, focused on comprehensive financial services for small businesses and low-income households, significantly contributed to the discussion on Differentiated Banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Nachiket Mor Committee. This committee explored banking structures, including differentiated models like Payments Banks, to enhance financial inclusion.
Question 120: What is the core difference between a Horizontally Differentiated Banking System (HDBS) and a Vertically Differentiated Banking System (VDBS)?
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Correct Answer: B. HDBS banks are full-service but differ by size/sector, while VDBS banks specialize in specific functions like payments or credit. HDBS involves variations within the universal bank model, whereas VDBS involves specialization in core banking functions.
Question 121: What were the primary objectives behind the Reserve Bank of India’s guidelines for setting up Payments Banks?
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Correct Answer: C. To provide small savings accounts and payment/remittance services to specific target groups like migrant labour and low-income households. Payments Banks were designed to enhance financial inclusion by focusing on basic deposit and payment services.
Question 122: Which of the following entities are generally eligible to apply for a license to set up a Payments Bank?
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Correct Answer: C. Existing non-bank PPI issuers, NBFCs, mobile companies, corporate BCs, individuals/professionals, etc., owned/controlled by residents. The eligibility criteria were broad, allowing various resident-controlled entities with relevant experience to apply.
Question 123: What is the minimum period of track record (running business or professional experience) required for promoters/promoter groups to be eligible for promoting Payments Banks?
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Correct Answer: C. Five years. Promoters needed to demonstrate a stable operational history of at least five years to meet the ‘fit and proper’ criteria.
Question 124: What was the revised maximum balance limit per individual customer permitted in Payments Banks as per the RBI notification dated 8th April 2021?
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Correct Answer: C. ₹2,00,000. The initial limit of ₹1 lakh was increased to ₹2 lakhs to provide greater flexibility for account holders.
Question 125: Which type of card are Payments Banks explicitly prohibited from issuing?
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Correct Answer: C. Credit cards. Due to their restriction on lending activities, Payments Banks are not permitted to issue credit cards.
Question 126: Are Payments Banks permitted to distribute financial products like mutual fund units and insurance products?
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Correct Answer: C. Yes, provided they are simple, non-risk sharing products. They can act as distributors for basic financial products where they do not bear the associated risk.
Question 127: What is the primary restriction on the deployment of funds by Payments Banks?
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Correct Answer: B. They cannot undertake lending activities. The core restriction defining Payments Banks is their inability to provide loans or advances.
Question 128: What minimum percentage of their demand deposit balances must Payments Banks invest in SLR-eligible Government securities/treasury bills with maturity up to one year?
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Correct Answer: C. 75 per cent. A significant portion of their deposits must be held in safe, liquid government securities.
Question 129: What is the minimum required paid-up equity capital for setting up a Payments Bank?
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Correct Answer: C. ₹100 crore. Payments Banks require a minimum capital base of ₹100 crore to start operations.
Question 130: What is the minimum initial contribution required from the promoter(s) towards the paid-up equity capital of a Payments Bank, and for how long must it be maintained?
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Correct Answer: B. 40 per cent for the first 5 years. Promoters must hold a significant stake initially for a minimum duration of five years.
Question 131: What is the minimum Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) requirement stipulated for Payments Banks as per RBI’s prudential guidelines?
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Correct Answer: C. 15%. Despite not lending, Payments Banks are subject to a minimum capital adequacy ratio requirement.
Question 132: What were the main objectives cited by RBI for licensing Small Finance Banks (SFBs)?
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Correct Answer: C. To further financial inclusion by providing savings vehicles and credit to underserved sections like small businesses and farmers. SFBs were conceptualized to deepen financial services access for marginalized segments.
Question 133: What minimum experience in banking and finance is required for resident individuals/professionals to be eligible promoters for Small Finance Banks?
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Correct Answer: C. 10 years. Individual promoters needed substantial experience in the financial sector to qualify.
Question 134: Which existing types of institutions were explicitly mentioned as being eligible for conversion into Small Finance Banks, provided they meet other criteria?
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Correct Answer: C. Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Local Area Banks (LABs). The guidelines allowed these existing players focused on financial inclusion to transition into SFBs.
Question 135: Is there any restriction on the geographical area of operations for Small Finance Banks?
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Correct Answer: D. No, there is no restriction on their area of operations. Unlike RRBs or LABs, SFBs were permitted to operate nationwide.
Question 136: What is the minimum percentage of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) that Small Finance Banks are required to lend to sectors eligible for Priority Sector Lending (PSL)?
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Correct Answer: D. 75 per cent. SFBs have a higher PSL target compared to universal banks, reflecting their financial inclusion mandate.
Question 137: What requirement exists for Small Finance Banks regarding the concentration of their loan portfolio in smaller loans?
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Correct Answer: B. At least 50 per cent of the portfolio should constitute loans and advances up to ₹25 lakh. This ensures a focus on lending to small borrowers.
Question 138: Which facility allows for applications to set up Small Finance Banks to be submitted at any time, rather than during specific windows?
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Correct Answer: C. ‘On-tap’ licensing facility. This policy shift made the licensing process continuous, allowing eligible entities to apply whenever they are ready.
Question 139: What is the minimum paid-up voting equity capital or net worth requirement for entities applying for an SFB license under the ‘on-tap’ guidelines (excluding UCB conversions)?
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Correct Answer: B. ₹200 crore. The minimum capital requirement was increased for new applicants under the on-tap regime.
Question 140: For Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks (UCBs) wishing to convert into Small Finance Banks under the ‘on-tap’ scheme, what is the initial minimum net worth requirement, and by when must it reach the standard ₹200 crore?
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Correct Answer: B. Initial ₹100 crore, reach ₹200 crore in 5 years. A special dispensation was provided for converting UCBs, allowing them phased achievement of the higher capital norm.
Question 141: After how many years of operation can a Payments Bank apply for conversion into a Small Finance Bank, provided it meets eligibility criteria?
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Correct Answer: C. Five years. The guidelines provide a pathway for successful Payments Banks to graduate into SFBs after gaining operational experience.
Question 142: In which year was the decision taken to allow the establishment of Local Area Banks (LABs) in the private sector?
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Correct Answer: C. 1996. The LAB scheme was introduced in the mid-nineties as an initiative to boost rural credit.
Question 143: What was the intended primary goal for establishing Local Area Banks?
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Correct Answer: C. To bridge gaps in credit availability in rural and semi-urban areas. LABs were conceived to enhance institutional credit delivery in specific local areas.
Question 144: What was the minimum start-up capital prescribed for a Local Area Bank, required to be brought in upfront by the promoters?
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Correct Answer: B. ₹5 crore. The initial capital requirement for LABs was set at ₹5 crore.
Question 145: What is the typical maximum geographical area of operation specified for a Local Area Bank?
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Correct Answer: B. Three geographically contiguous districts. LAB operations were meant to be geographically focused, usually limited to three adjoining districts.
Question 146: Which sectors were Local Area Banks primarily expected to finance?
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Correct Answer: C. Agriculture, allied activities, MSME, agro-industries, trading, and non-farm activities. Their lending focus was directed towards the economic activities prevalent in their local area of operation.
Question 147: Are Local Area Banks subject to prudential norms and policies laid down by the Reserve Bank of India?
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Correct Answer: C. Yes, they are subject to RBI’s prudential norms and supervision. Despite being small and local, LABs fall under RBI’s regulatory purview for banking operations.
Question 148: Which specific Local Area Bank, mentioned in the text, has its head office in Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh?
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Correct Answer: C. Coastal Local Area Bank Ltd. The text identifies this as one of the two LABs operational at the time, with its HQ in Vijayawada.
Question 149: What reason is cited in the text for Local Area Banks losing their significance over time?
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Correct Answer: C. The opening of Differentiated Banks like Small Finance Banks, which offered advantages. The emergence of SFBs, with a similar focus but potentially broader scope or better framework, diminished the relevance of the LAB model.
Question 150: What fundamental difference distinguishes Public Sector Banks from Private Sector Banks in India?
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Correct Answer: C. Majority ownership (Government vs Private). This is the primary legal and operational distinction between the two categories of banks.
Question 151: What is the core concept behind the Reserve Bank of India encouraging the establishment of Differentiated Banks?
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Correct Answer: B. To promote specialized banking services catering to niche segments or specific needs like financial inclusion. Differentiated banking aims to foster specialization and cater more effectively to diverse economic requirements.
Question 152: Can Payments Banks accept demand deposits?
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Correct Answer: C. Yes, subject to a maximum balance limit per individual customer. Payments Banks are allowed to accept demand deposits but within specified individual balance caps.
Question 153: Are Small Finance Banks required to comply with Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) norms?
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Correct Answer: B. Yes, they are subject to CRR and SLR requirements similar to other Scheduled Commercial Banks. SFBs must adhere to the standard reserve requirements applicable to the banking system.
Question 154: Under the ‘on-tap’ licensing guidelines, when is a newly licensed Small Finance Bank granted ‘scheduled bank’ status?
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Correct Answer: C. Immediately upon commencement of operations. The on-tap guidelines provide for immediate inclusion in the Second Schedule of the RBI Act upon starting business.
Question 155: What is the primary function of a ‘Sponsor Bank’ in the context of Regional Rural Banks (not covered in this specific section but mentioned elsewhere in the unit)?
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Correct Answer: C. To provide managerial and financial support and hold 35% share capital. Sponsor banks play a crucial role in establishing, funding (holding 35% stake), and guiding RRBs.