CAIIB ABM Module B UNIT 14 MCQ – Performance Management.
Question 1: What is described as the main purpose of Human Resource Development in an organisation?
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Correct Answer: C. To develop employees and create an environment for their best contribution. Human Resource Development focuses on nurturing employee potential and fostering a work atmosphere where employees can perform optimally.
Question 2: Why is it considered logical to measure employee performance on the job?
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Correct Answer: B. To know and communicate employee contributions and identify areas for improvement. Measuring performance helps understand individual contributions and provides a basis for development and enhancement.
Question 3: According to Flippo, what choice does a company not have regarding employee appraisal?
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Correct Answer: B. Whether or not to appraise personnel and their performance. Flippo states that evaluation of employee performance is inevitable; the choice lies only in the method used.
Question 4: How is Performance Appraisal defined in the context of management?
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Correct Answer: C. A systematic evaluation of the work performed by employees against predefined standards. Performance appraisal involves a structured assessment of employee work based on established criteria like knowledge, performance, attitude, etc.
Question 5: According to Heyel’s definition, what administrative purposes does performance appraisal serve?
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Correct Answer: C. Actions like placement, promotion selection, financial rewards, and other differential treatment. Heyel highlights that appraisal outcomes inform various administrative decisions requiring differentiation among employees.
Question 6: McGregor identified three needs met by performance appraisal plans. Which need involves providing feedback and understanding reasons for poor performance?
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Correct Answer: C. Counselling. McGregor specifies counselling by the superior as a distinct need involving feedback and addressing performance issues, although some experts group it under the developmental need.
Question 7: What is stated as the overall objective of performance appraisal?
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Correct Answer: B. To improve the efficiency of the organisation. While specific objectives exist, the ultimate goal of performance appraisal is to enhance the overall effectiveness and productivity of the organisation.
Question 8: Which of the following is a specific objective of a performance appraisal system?
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Correct Answer: C. To maintain an inventory of employee skills and identify training needs. Appraisals help organisations understand their human resource capabilities and pinpoint areas requiring development.
Question 9: How does a performance appraisal system help in managing employees uniformly?
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Correct Answer: B. By applying the same rating scales to all employees, making them comparable. A key use is to rate employees consistently using common criteria, allowing for fair comparisons.
Question 10: How can implementing a performance appraisal system improve the quality of supervision?
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Correct Answer: B. By requiring supervisors to become keen observers of employee performance. The process encourages supervisors to pay closer attention to their team’s work and behaviours, enhancing their observational skills.
Question 11: What is the first step in the performance evaluation process?
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Correct Answer: C. Setting the performance standards in advance. The process begins by establishing clear, realistic, and measurable benchmarks against which performance will be assessed.
Question 12: What is the final step in the performance evaluation process after discussing the outcome with the employee?
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Correct Answer: D. Initiating corrective measures and acting on positive performance (e.g., rewards, training). The process concludes with taking appropriate actions based on the appraisal results, such as development plans or rewards.
Question 13: What is the primary difference in emphasis between traditional and modern methods of performance appraisal?
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Correct Answer: B. Traditional methods emphasise rating personality traits, while modern methods focus on job achievement results. Modern approaches shifted towards evaluating actual results and achievements, considering it more objective than assessing personality.
Question 14: Which traditional appraisal method involves the appraiser writing a free-form, open-ended assessment of the employee’s job knowledge, attitudes, and development needs?
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Correct Answer: C. Free Form Essay Method. This method is unstructured, allowing the appraiser complete freedom to write comments, but suffers from subjectivity and difficulty in comparison.
Question 15: In which comparison method is each employee compared with every other employee individually, particularly useful when the number of employees is large?
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Correct Answer: C. Paired Comparison Method. This technique simplifies ranking large groups by comparing employees in pairs and determining overall rank based on how often an employee is preferred.
Question 16: Which widely used traditional method assesses employees on characteristics like initiative and dependability, as well as the quality and quantity of their work contribution, often using a continuous scale?
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Correct Answer: B. Graphic or Linear Rating Method. This common method evaluates both personal traits and work output, although it can be subjective and assumes equal importance of traits across jobs.
Question 17: What is the primary aim of the Forced Distribution Method of appraisal?
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Correct Answer: C. To minimise appraiser bias by requiring ratings to fit a predetermined distribution scale. This method forces ratings into categories (e.g., top 10%, middle 80%, bottom 10%) to counteract tendencies like leniency or central tendency.
Question 18: What is a key advantage of the Group Appraisal Method?
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Correct Answer: C. It involves multiple raters, leading to a more thorough assessment with less bias. Having a group evaluate an employee provides multiple perspectives, reducing individual bias, although it is time-consuming.
Question 19: Which modern appraisal method uses multiple assessors and tools like group discussions, business games, and in-basket exercises to evaluate behaviour in simulated job situations?
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Correct Answer: C. Assessment Centre Workshops. Assessment centres employ various simulation exercises and multiple observers to assess candidates’ skills and potential in job-related scenarios.
Question 20: Which of the following is NOT typically a purpose of an Assessment Centre?
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Correct Answer: C. To conduct routine daily performance monitoring. Assessment Centres are intensive evaluations for specific purposes like potential assessment, selection, or identifying development needs, not for day-to-day performance tracking.
Question 21: What is the core principle of the Management By Objectives (MBO) appraisal method?
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Correct Answer: B. Minimising external controls and increasing motivation through joint goal setting and participation. MBO focuses on results achieved through collaborative goal setting between employee and superior, aiming to boost motivation.
Question 22: Which activity is central to the Management By Objectives (MBO) process?
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Correct Answer: C. Jointly setting short-term performance goals by employees and their superiors. A key feature of MBO is the collaborative process where employees and managers agree on specific, measurable objectives.
Question 23: What does the Human Asset Accounting method primarily measure?
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Correct Answer: B. The overall human performance of the organisation by valuing personnel as capital. This method assesses the collective value of human resources to the organisation, not individual performance appraisals.
Question 24: What does the Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS) method use to define points on its rating scale?
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Correct Answer: C. Critical incidents illustrating specific examples of effective and ineffective job performance. BARS uses specific behavioural examples (anchors) derived from critical incidents to make ratings more concrete and objective.
Question 25: Who typically provides ratings in a 360 Degree Appraisal?
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Correct Answer: C. A wide range of stakeholders including seniors, peers, subordinates, customers, and the employee themself. This method gathers feedback from multiple sources surrounding the employee for a comprehensive view.
Question 26: How does the 720 Degree Appraisal method differ from the 360 Degree method?
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Correct Answer: C. It essentially involves conducting the 360 Degree appraisal twice, with feedback and guidance provided between the two rounds. The 720 Degree method adds a follow-up appraisal and feedback session to the standard 360 Degree process.
Question 27: What is a common structure for performance appraisal systems in the service industry, including banking?
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Correct Answer: C. A three-part system involving self-appraisal, appraisal by the reporting authority, and review by the reporting authority’s superior. This multi-layered approach incorporates employee input, supervisor assessment, and higher-level review for balance.
Question 28: Why is assessing potential considered distinct from assessing current performance?
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Correct Answer: C. The skills required for a higher position may differ significantly from those needed for the current job. An employee might excel in their current role but lack the different skills or attributes needed for promotion, necessitating separate potential appraisal.
Question 29: Why is it risky to base promotion decisions solely on performance appraisal results?
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Correct Answer: B. It assumes past performance guarantees future success in a different, higher role, which may not be true. Relying only on current performance for promotion is a prediction that might fail if the higher role requires different competencies, leading to potential mismatches like losing a good specialist to create a poor manager.
Question 30: Which method is mentioned as being of great use in assessing potential, often used in conjunction with the performance appraisal system?
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Correct Answer: C. Assessment Centre Method. Assessment Centres, with their focus on simulating higher-level tasks and observing relevant behaviours, are highlighted as particularly useful for evaluating an employee’s potential for advancement alongside their current performance.
Question 31: What is a primary characteristic of the traditional “confidential report” system of performance appraisal?
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Correct Answer: C. Lack of transparency and feedback, often perceived as mysterious. The traditional confidential report was kept secret from the employee, offering no feedback or developmental input.
Question 32: Which is a significant disadvantage of the confidential report system mentioned?
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Correct Answer: C. It does not consider employee development needs. The secrecy and lack of feedback inherent in confidential reports mean they typically ignore the developmental aspect of appraisal.
Question 33: What is considered a merit of a well-implemented performance appraisal system?
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Correct Answer: C. It reveals concern for performance and can foster openness and trust. Properly executed appraisals show organisational commitment to performance and can build trust through transparency and feedback.
Question 34: What is the ‘halo effect’ in the context of performance appraisal errors?
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Correct Answer: B. Allowing one prominent trait (positive or negative) to influence the entire assessment. The halo effect occurs when an appraiser lets a single characteristic overshadow all other aspects of performance, leading to a biased overall rating.
Question 35: The error of assigning average ratings to all employees, possibly due to fear of judgement or lack of careful evaluation, is known as:
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Correct Answer: C. Central tendency problem. This error involves clustering most ratings around the midpoint of the scale, avoiding high or low ratings, thus failing to differentiate performance levels.
Question 36: What quality is essential for an appraiser to avoid personal bias and reflect true performance?
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Correct Answer: B. Sincerity, faithfulness, and objectivity. Effective appraisal requires the appraiser to be honest, dedicated to the process, and capable of setting aside personal likes or dislikes.
Question 37: Which of the following is a key characteristic of a good performance appraisal system?
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Correct Answer: C. It should be transparent and provide timely feedback. Transparency and providing regular, constructive feedback are essential components of an effective appraisal system.
Question 38: A good performance appraisal system should be able to identify impediments to performance and also:
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Correct Answer: B. Discriminate effectively between high and low performers. A robust system must clearly differentiate varying levels of performance to be useful for development and decision-making.
Question 39: Rating an employee based primarily on their performance just before the appraisal period is known as which error?
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Correct Answer: C. Latest Impression (Recency Effect). This error occurs when the appraiser gives undue weight to recent events or performance, ignoring the employee’s performance over the entire evaluation period.
Question 40: The tendency to rate an employee unfavourably based on one negative trait influencing the entire evaluation is called:
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Correct Answer: B. Horn Effect. This is the opposite of the halo effect, where a single negative characteristic unfairly biases the entire appraisal negatively.
Question 41: Performance review, as part of performance management, primarily involves:
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Correct Answer: B. Appraising the employee’s performance over a period, often by the superior. Performance review is the act of evaluating how an employee has performed their job duties during a specific timeframe.
Question 42: Before conducting a performance review discussion, what should a superior ideally do?
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Correct Answer: B. Gather information like past goals, performance data, and form a preliminary view. Preparation involves collecting relevant data and understanding the context before meeting the employee, though final judgment should await discussion.
Question 43: What is a key purpose of conducting an appraisal interview?
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Correct Answer: C. To gather information, clarify performance, identify development areas, and agree on targets. The interview is a dialogue aimed at understanding performance, discussing development, and setting future goals collaboratively.
Question 44: Which precaution is suggested for conducting an effective appraisal interview?
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Correct Answer: D. Choosing a neutral venue or the appraisee’s workspace to ensure comfort. The environment should make the employee feel comfortable and free to speak openly, which is less likely in the superior’s office.
Question 45: During an appraisal interview, the appraiser should primarily adopt the role of a:
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Correct Answer: C. Listener, encouraging the employee to speak. The appraiser should facilitate discussion by listening actively and encouraging the employee to share their perspective before offering feedback.
Question 46: When giving feedback during an appraisal, the focus should be on:
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Correct Answer: C. Being suggestive, focusing on development needs, and adopting a problem-solving approach. Effective feedback is constructive, aimed at development, and collaboratively seeks solutions rather than simply assigning blame.
Question 47: What approach should a superior avoid when giving performance feedback?
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Correct Answer: B. A fault-finding approach. The aim of feedback should be constructive improvement, not simply identifying and highlighting faults or placing blame.
Question 48: Which action is recommended for an appraiser during an appraisal interview?
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Correct Answer: A. Allowing the employee to do the maximum talking initially. Encouraging the employee to share their perspective first fosters a more open and collaborative discussion.
Question 49: What should an appraiser avoid doing during the feedback process?
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Correct Answer: C. Adopting a judgmental stand without providing reasoning. Making conclusive statements without explaining the basis or evidence erodes trust and hinders constructive dialogue.
Question 50: In the context of performance management, when is counselling typically employed?
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Correct Answer: C. When an employee’s performance requires immediate and major corrective actions. Counselling is usually reserved for situations where performance issues are significant and require focused intervention beyond standard feedback.
Question 51: How is counselling defined in the performance context?
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Correct Answer: B. An activity where one individual helps another manage their own work-related decision-making. Counselling aims to empower the employee to take responsibility for and improve their performance or behaviour.
Question 52: What is the prime purpose of the counselling process in performance management?
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Correct Answer: B. To communicate performance feedback and expectations to help the employee improve. The core goal is clear communication about performance concerns and collaborative efforts towards improvement.
Question 53: Which principle should guide a counsellor when discussing performance issues?
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Correct Answer: C. Centre the discussion on performance issues, not the person, and aim to assist. Effective counselling addresses specific behaviours or performance gaps constructively, avoiding personal attacks.
Question 54: What motto is suggested for delivering criticism during counselling?
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Correct Answer: C. “Criticising without crippling.” Criticism should be delivered constructively, aiming to correct behaviour or performance without damaging the employee’s confidence or motivation.
Question 55: What approach might an organisation take towards employees who remain average performers despite various interventions like training and job rotation?
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Correct Answer: B. Continuing them in jobs that suit their capabilities, especially if devoted and loyal. Organisations often find suitable roles for reliable average performers rather than taking drastic measures, though performance pay may differ.
Question 56: How can successful counselling potentially motivate an employee?
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Correct Answer: B. By removing performance hurdles, enabling them to perform to their capability, leading to confidence. By addressing issues, counselling can help employees achieve better results, boosting their confidence and motivation.
Question 57: In simple terms, what constitutes a competency?
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Correct Answer: B. A knowledge, skill, or attitude (KSA) related to job performance. Competency refers to the underlying characteristics (knowledge, skills, attitudes) that enable effective job performance.
Question 58: What is a key difference between ‘Competence’ and ‘Competency’?
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Correct Answer: C. Competence is task-oriented (job outputs), while Competency is person-oriented (attributes/behaviours). Competence relates to the ability to do the tasks of a job, whereas competency relates to the underlying traits enabling superior performance.
Question 59: Competencies related to processes and procedures are generally classified as:
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Correct Answer: B. Technical Competencies (Hard Skills). Technical or hard skills pertain to the specific knowledge and abilities required to perform technical aspects of a job.
Question 60: What does a ‘Competency Description’ typically include, besides the competency name?
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Correct Answer: B. A definition of the competency and specific behaviour indicators. A good description defines the competency clearly and provides examples of observable behaviours that demonstrate it.
Question 61: The competency level required of experienced employees performing at the expected standard for their role is often termed:
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Correct Answer: C. Fully Effective Level. This level represents the standard proficiency expected from someone experienced and fully functional in their role.
Question 62: What is a ‘Competency Dictionary’ within an organisation?
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Correct Answer: B. A catalogue containing definitions of general and specific competencies relevant to the organisation. It serves as a reference guide to the competencies valued and required across different roles within the company.
Question 63: What is the primary process involved in ‘Competency Mapping’?
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Correct Answer: B. Identifying the key competencies required for specific positions and the organisation. Competency mapping is the systematic identification of skills, knowledge, and behaviours crucial for success in various roles.
Question 64: Competency mapping is used as a basis for several HR functions, including:
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Correct Answer: B. Recruitment, training, performance management, and succession planning. Identified competencies inform decisions across the employee lifecycle, from hiring to development and promotion.
Question 65: The ‘Post Performance-based Approach’ to competency mapping often utilizes which interview technique?
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Correct Answer: B. Behavioural Event Interview (BEI). This approach uses BEI to gather detailed examples of past behaviours from performers to identify competencies linked to success.
Question 66: The classical model for Assessment Centre design and practice, influential in the USA and Britain, was notably developed operationally within which company?
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Correct Answer: D. AT&T (Bell System). AT&T’s research and operational use of assessment centres starting in 1958 heavily influenced modern practices.
Question 67: An Assessment Centre is best described as:
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Correct Answer: C. A process using multiple testing techniques and simulations to evaluate job-relevant skills. It’s a methodology involving various exercises observed by multiple assessors to gauge suitability for a role.
Question 68: According to established guidelines, how many assessors should ideally observe each participant during an Assessment Centre activity?
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Correct Answer: B. More than one assessor for every activity. Using multiple assessors for each activity helps ensure objectivity and reduces individual bias in evaluation.
Question 69: Which Assessment Centre tool simulates dealing with a manager’s accumulated correspondence and tasks, often under time pressure?
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Correct Answer: C. In-tray or In-basket Exercise. This exercise assesses skills like prioritisation, decision-making, delegation, and time management by simulating a realistic workload.
Question 70: Asking participants to make an extempore speech on a topic given shortly beforehand is a technique used in Assessment Centres primarily to judge:
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Correct Answer: C. Organisation of thoughts, logic, and attitude. Extempore presentations test the ability to think quickly, structure arguments logically, communicate clearly, and reveal attitudes under pressure.
Question 71: What is the first step recommended in the planning process for an Assessment Centre?
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Correct Answer: B. Identifying and clearly stating the purpose for conducting the centre. Defining the objective (e.g., recruitment, promotion) is the foundational step that guides all subsequent planning decisions.
Question 72: Which aspect is described as the most critical in planning an Assessment Centre, influencing the selection of tools and exercises?
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Correct Answer: C. Preparing the list of critical competencies to be assessed. The specific competencies targeted for evaluation determine the choice of appropriate assessment methods and exercises.
Question 73: When using ‘off the shelf’ assessment tools for an Assessment Centre, what precaution should be taken?
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Correct Answer: C. Test and validate them in the present context before use. Pre-existing tools need validation to ensure they are relevant and reliable for the specific purpose and context of the assessment centre.
Question 74: Why is pre-assessment training considered necessary even for experienced assessors before each Assessment Centre?
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Correct Answer: B. To ensure they strictly follow the specific criterion and procedure for that centre, ensuring uniformity. Training reinforces the specific standards and procedures for the current assessment, promoting consistency among assessors.
Question 75: What document should be prepared during the planning phase to specify the entire procedure, including instructions for candidates and assessors?
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Correct Answer: C. An assessment manual. The manual serves as a comprehensive guide detailing all procedures, instructions, and criteria for conducting the assessment centre.
Question 76: During the conducting phase of an Assessment Centre, what should be done after gathering candidates at the appropriate place?
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Correct Answer: C. Provide a briefing to the candidates about the purpose of the assessment centre. Briefing participants on the purpose helps set expectations and ensures they understand the context of the exercises.
Question 77: What is the final step mentioned in conducting an Assessment Centre, after evaluation and potential feedback?
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Correct Answer: C. Making the reports of the assessment centre available to management for action. The process concludes with delivering the assessment results to decision-makers for subsequent actions like selection or development planning.
Question 78: Who typically plays the role of assessors in an Assessment Centre?
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Correct Answer: B. Trained external experts or trained existing line managers. Assessors are usually specialists or managers who have received specific training in assessment methodologies.
Question 79: Why are HR officials generally advised to act as facilitators rather than assessors in Assessment Centres?
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Correct Answer: B. To avoid potential role conflict. HR’s involvement in outcomes (like promotion or recruitment) could conflict with the need for objective assessment if they also act as assessors.
Question 80: Which ability is crucial for an assessor to make an objective assessment?
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Correct Answer: B. Ability to observe behaviour accurately and suspend judgment until all information is gathered. Objectivity requires careful observation, accurate recording, and withholding final judgment until all data is pooled and reviewed.
Question 81: What is the fundamental premise underlying the Behavioural Event Interview (BEI) technique?
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Correct Answer: C. The best predictor of future behaviour is past behaviour. BEI operates on the principle that how a person acted in past situations is the most reliable indicator of how they will act in the future.
Question 82: What is the primary goal of asking open-ended questions about past experiences in a BEI?
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Correct Answer: C. To gather detailed descriptions of behaviours demonstrating job-relevant abilities. The aim is to elicit specific examples (stories) that illustrate the candidate’s competencies in action.
Question 83: Why is BEI considered the ‘heart’ of the Job Competency Assessment (JCA) process?
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Correct Answer: B. It provides the richest source of data about competencies predicting superior performance. BEI yields detailed behavioural data considered highly valuable for identifying job-critical competencies.
Question 84: What does the STAR technique, often used in BEI, help the interviewee structure?
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Correct Answer: B. Their description of a past situation, the task involved, the action they took, and the result. STAR provides a framework (Situation, Task, Action, Result) for recounting specific behavioural examples completely.
Question 85: What is the purpose of the first step (Introduction and Explanation) in a BEI for Job Competency Assessment?
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Correct Answer: C. To establish trust and rapport with the interviewee. This initial step aims to create a comfortable atmosphere where the interviewee feels relaxed and open to sharing experiences.
Question 86: In which step of the BEI process does the interviewer ask the candidate to describe complete stories of critical incidents using the STAR technique?
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Correct Answer: C. Behavioural Events. This is the main part of the interview where detailed behavioural examples are elicited and explored.
Question 87: What potential limitation arises from the BEI method’s reliance on the respondent’s recall?
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Correct Answer: B. The respondent might provide biased or self-serving information. Since recall is subjective, interviewees might consciously or unconsciously present experiences in a more favourable light.
Question 88: What is another limitation mentioned regarding the BEI method concerning the interviewer?
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Correct Answer: B. The interpretation of responses relies heavily on the interviewer’s expertise and judgment. Extracting competencies and finding patterns from the interview data depends significantly on the interviewer’s skill, introducing potential subjectivity.
Question 89: The “Let Us Sum Up” section reiterates that the single most important central point in performance appraisal is the need for appraisers to be:
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Correct Answer: C. Objective, fair, open, and trustworthy. The summary emphasizes that fairness, objectivity, and transparency are crucial for an effective appraisal process.
Question 90: According to the summary, Assessment Centres are considered a reliable method for assessing competencies, despite being:
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Correct Answer: C. Time-consuming and costly, requiring trained assessors. The summary acknowledges the reliability of ACs but also points out their significant resource requirements.
Question 91: The summary contrasts ‘Competence’ and ‘Competency’, highlighting the importance of identifying competencies required to perform a job:
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Correct Answer: C. Efficiently and effectively. The summary links identifying competencies to ensuring efficient and effective job performance.
Question 92: In planning an Assessment Centre, identifying the specific job role or position for which the assessment is being conducted is crucial because:
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Correct Answer: B. It influences the selection of relevant competencies and design of exercises. Understanding the specific job position is essential for tailoring the assessment to evaluate the most critical skills and behaviours needed for that role.
Question 93: When conducting an Assessment Centre, what is the primary reason for clearly instructing candidates before each exercise?
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Correct Answer: B. To ensure candidates understand the task requirements and evaluation basis. Clear instructions are necessary for candidates to perform the exercises correctly and to ensure the assessment is fair and consistent.
Question 94: Assessors in an Assessment Centre need knowledge of the job’s context or content primarily to:
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Correct Answer: C. Accurately interpret candidate behaviours in relation to job demands. Understanding the job helps assessors evaluate whether observed behaviours are relevant and effective within the specific work environment.
Question 95: The “Let Us Sum Up” section emphasizes a key distinction learned in the unit regarding:
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Correct Answer: B. The concepts of ‘Competence’ (task-oriented) and ‘Competency’ (person-oriented). The summary highlights understanding the difference between job task proficiency (competence) and underlying behavioural attributes (competency) as important.
Question 96: According to the principles of Behavioural Event Interviewing (BEI), why is focusing on what people actually did considered more credible than what they say about their skills?
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Correct Answer: B. Actions provide concrete evidence of behaviour and competence application. The BEI rationale is that actual past behaviour is a more reliable indicator of skills and motives than self-reported claims.
Question 97: Which essential element of Assessment Centre design ensures that judgments are based on consolidated information from multiple observers?
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Correct Answer: C. Pooling of information. This principle requires assessors to integrate their observations and discuss discrepancies to reach a consensus rating, enhancing reliability.
Question 98: The Behavioural Event Interview (BEI) primarily focuses on gathering information about:
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Correct Answer: B. Specific past actions and behaviours in relevant situations. BEI delves into concrete past experiences to understand how a candidate actually behaved and performed.
Question 99: What is a key benefit of using multiple assessment techniques in an Assessment Centre?
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Correct Answer: C. It provides diverse opportunities to observe behaviours related to different job dimensions. Using various exercises allows for a more comprehensive evaluation across a range of required competencies.
Question 100: The purpose of the ‘Characteristics Needed to do the Job’ step in a BEI is primarily to:
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Correct Answer: C. Get the interviewee’s perspective on required KSA, potentially uncovering overlooked critical incidents. Asking the interviewee what they think is needed can prompt recall of additional relevant examples and validate previously identified competencies.